UHS MDCAT Past Paper 2015

UHS MDCAT Past Paper MCQs 2015

Q.3 If electrons of charge ‘e’ moving with velocity ‘v’ are accelerated through a potential difference ‘V’ and strike a metal target, then velocity of electrons is:

A) m

B) √Ve

C) √Ve

D) √2Ve

Q.4 In X-ray tube, electrons after being accelerated through velocity ‘v’ strike the target, then the
wavelength of emitted X-rays is:
hc h

A) Not greater than

eV C) Equal to the mV

B) Not less than eV D) Equal to eV

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Q.5 In the reaction,


234 0
91 -1

the electron 0

emits from the

A) 1st Orbit C) Nucleus
B) 2nd Orbit D) Valence Shell
Q.6 According to the equation AX → Y + 3α particles, what are the atomic and mass numbers
of ‘Y’?
A) Z – 6, A – 12 C) Z + 1, A
B) Z – 2, A – 4 D) Z + 3, A

Q.7 A certain radioactive nuclide of mass number ‘x’ decays by β-emission and α-emission to a
second nuclide of mass number ‘t’. Which of following correctly relates ‘x’ and ‘t’?
A) x = t + 4 C) x – 3 = t
B) x = t – 4 D) x – 1 = t

Q.8 During the decay of radioactive isotopes 232X

to a stable isotope, six α-particles and four β-

particles are emitted, what is the atomic number ‘Z’ and mass number ‘A’ of the stable isotopes.
A) Z = 70, A = 220 C) Z = 82, A = 212
B) Z = 78, A = 212 D) Z = 82, A = 208

Q.9 Cobalt 60 is used in medicine and is an intense source of:
A) α-particles C) γ-rays
B) β-particles D) Neutrons

A) Optical Center C) Principle Focus
B) Infinity D) Near Point

Q.15 Mathematical formula of maximum velocity (vo) for a body executing simple harmonic motion is:

A) vo

= ωxo

C) vo

= v √1 −

x2 xo2

B) vo = k √x 2 − x2 D) vo = m √x 2 − x2

m o o

Q. 16 A body is having weight 20 N, when the elevator is descended with a = 0.1 ms-2, then the value
of tension ‘T’ is:
A) 196 N C) 1.98 N
C) 19.8 N D) 2 N

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Q.17 Sodium 24 has half-life of 15 hour and it is used in medicine to estimate:
A) Kidney Function C) Iron in Plasma
B) Plasma Blood Volume D) Thyroid Function

Q.18 The unit of temperature in base unit is:
A) Celsius C) Kelvin
B) Degree D) Fahrenheit

Q.19 The dimensions of pressure is:
A) [M-1L2T-2] C) [M-1L-2T-2]
B) [ML-1T] D) [ML-1T-2]

Q.20 In Wilson Cloud Chamber which of the following tracks represented β-particles?

Q.24 What should be the ration of kinetic energy to total energy for simple harmonic oscillator?

A) 1 −

x2 xo2

C) (xo2

− x2)

B) 1 D) 2 x2
Q.25 An observer moves with velocity ‘vo’ toward a stationary source, then the number of waves
received in one second is:


A) f’ = f ( ) C) f’ = f

v + vo)

v + vo v
B) f’ = f (

) D) f’ = f

( v
v − vo)

v − vo ( v
Q.26 Strain energy in a deformed energy is stored in the form of:
A) Elastic Energy C) Plastic Energy
B) Potential Energy D) Kinetic Energy

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Q.27 A wire of area of cross section ‘A’ and original length ‘l’ is subjected to a load ‘L’. A second wire of same material with an area is ‘2A’ and length ‘2l’ is subjected to the same load ‘L’. If the extension in first wire is ‘X’ and second wire is ‘Y’, find the ratio ‘X/Y’.
1 1
A) 4 C) 1
1 2
B) 2 D) 1
Q.28 Two sample of gases ‘1’ and ‘2’ are taken at same temperature and pressure but the ratio of number of their volume is V1:V2 = 2:3. What is the ration of number of moles of the gas sample? A) 3:2 C) 4:9
B) √2:√3 D) 2:3
Q.29 Root mean square velocity of a gas having pressure ‘P’ and density ‘ρ’ is given by:

A) √ ρ

C) √3ρ

B) ρ D) P

Q.30 When the rate of gas changes without change in temperature, the gas is said to undergo:
A) Isothermal Process C) Isochoric Process
B) Adiabatic Process D) Isobaric Process

What are the mathematical notation for this logic gate?
A) (̅A̅̅̅+̅̅̅B̅).(A + B) B) (̅A̅̅̅+̅̅̅B̅).(̅A̅̅̅+̅̅̅B̅)
C) (̅A̅̅̅+̅̅̅B̅)(A̅ + B̅) D) A̅̅̅B̅ + A̅̅̅B̅

Q.34 Which combinations of seven identical resistors each of 2 Ω gives rise to the resultant of 10/11
A) 5 Parallel, 2 Series C) 3 Parallel, 4 Series
B) 4 Parallel, 3 Series D) 2 Parallel, 5 Series

Q.35 If a resistor having resistance ‘R’ is cut into three equal parts, then the equivalent of parallel
combination is:
6 R
A) R C) 9
3 R
B) R D) 3

Q.36 Which of the following is the truth table for the logic gate;

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A) C)

B) D)

Q.37 A bar of length ‘L’ pivoted at ‘O’ is acted by a force ‘F’ at an angle ‘ϴ’ with vertical line as shown
in figure;

Q.40 Force on current carrying conductor per unit length is given by:
A) IL sinϴ B) IL
B) ILB D) IB sinϴ

Q.41 In the case when the electrons lose all their kinetic energy (K.E.) in the first collision, the X-ray photon emitted has which of the following set of frequency and wavelength?
A) fmax, λmin C) fmin, λmax
B) fmax, λmax D) fmin, λmin

Q.42 If ‘A’ is fundamental dimension of ampere then the dimension of magnetic field strength is:
A) [MT2A-2] C) [MT2L2A-1]
B) [MT2A-1] D) [MT2L-2A-2]

Q.43 The potential difference between target and cathode of an X-rays tube is 20 kV and current is 20 mA. What is the λmin of the emitted X-ray?
A) 6.19 x 10-4 m C) 6.19 x 10-11 m
B) 6.19 x 10-14 m D) 6.19 x 10-19 m

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Q.44 Which of the following spectra is most typical of the output of an X-ray tube?


A) Wavelength


C) Wavelength

Intensity Intensity

B) Wavelength




Acid Ka Value
CH3COOH 1.85 x 10-5
CCl3COOH 2.3 x 10-2
CHCl2COOH 5.0 x 10-3
CH2ClCOOH 1.3 x 10-3




This structure is


A) Gly-Ala (dipeptide) C) Gly-Val (dipeptide)
B) Asp-Gly (dipeptide) D) Asp-Val (dipeptide)

Q.49 Which one of the following amino acids is basic in nature?
A) Glycine C) Lysine
B) Alanine D) Glutamic acid

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Q.50 Which one of the following structures shows the correct formula of glutamic acid?

A) H2N



B) H2N


D) H2N


Q.51 Select the correct Zwitter ionic structures of an amino acid.


A) NH2

C) H2N+ CH2 COO-

H3N+ C

B) H


H3N+ C

D) H


Q.55 Which one of the following pairs has the same electronic configuration as possessed by Neon (Ne-10)?
A) Na+, Cl― C) Na+, Mg2+
B) K+, Cl― D) Na+, F―

Q.56 If the volume of a gas collected at a temperature of 600 oC and pressure of 1.05 × 105 Nm-2 is 60 dm3, what would be the volume of gas at STP (P=1.01 × 103 Nm-2, T = 273 K)?
A) 25 cm3 C) 100 cm3
B) 75 cm3 D) 51 cm3

Q.57 There are four orbitals s, p, d and f. Which order is correct with respect to the increasing energy of the orbitals?
A) 4s < 4p < 4d < 4f C) 4s < 4f < 4p < 4d
B) 4p < 4s < 4f < 4d D) 4f < 4s < 4d < 4p

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Q.58 Which graph represents Boyle’s law?


A) C)



D) P

Q.59 Which one of the following hydrogen bonds is stronger than others?
A) Nδˉ―Hδ+ ············ Nδˉ―Hδ+ C) Oδˉ―Hδ+ Oδˉ―Hδ+
B) Fδˉ―Hδ+ ············ Fδˉ―Hδ+ D) Nδˉ―Hδ+ Oδˉ―Hδ+

A) Oxygen and Nitrogen C) Helium and Oxygen
B) Nitrogen and Helium D) Helium and Hydrogen

Q.66 [Ti(H2O)6]+3 transmits
A) Yellow and Red light C) Red and white light
B) Yellow and Blue light D) Red and blue light

Q.67 Electronic configuration of Gold [Au79] is
A) [Xe] 4f14, 5d10, 6s1 C) [Xe] 4f14, 5d9, 6s2
B) [Xe] 4f10, 5d10, 6s2 D) [Xe ]4f14, 5d10, 6s2

Q.68 About 80% of ammonia is used for the production of
A) Explosives C) Nylon
B) Fertilizers D) Polymers

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Q.69 Urea is the most widely used nitrogen fertilizer in Pakistan. Its composition Is
B) N2H5CO2 D) N2H4CO

Q.70 During the manufacture of nitric acid, nitric oxide is oxidized to nitrogen dioxide. This reaction is given as:
2NO(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g) ∆H = ―114 kJ/mol
According to Le Chatelier’s Principle
A) Reaction must not be temperature dependent C) Reaction must be carried out at low temperature
B) Reaction must be carried out at room temperature D) Reaction must be carried out at high temperature

Q.71 What is the percentage of nitrogen in NH3NO3?
A) 65% C) 20%
B) 35% D) 58%

Q.72 The structural formula of 2,3,4 trimethylpentane is:






A) CH3 CH3

C) CH3







Q.73 Which one of the following is a powerful electrophile used to attack on the electrons of benzene ring?
A) FeCl2 C) Cl+
B) FeCl4– D) Cl2

Q.74 Order of reactivity of alkenes with hydrogen halide is:
A) HBr > HI > HCl C) HF > HI > HCl
B) HI > HBr > HF D) HI > HBr > HCl

Q.75 The given three hydrocarbons are
Benzene Naphthalene Anthracene
A) Alicyclic hydrocarbons C) Acyclic Hydrocarbons
B) Aromatic hydrocarbons D) Heterocyclic hydrocarbons

Q.76 The IUPAC name of the given compound is

A) 1-Chloro-2-methylpropane C) Isobutyl chloride
B) 1-Chloro-2-methylbutane D) 2-Methyl-3-chloropropane

Q.77 Which one of the following was used as one of the earliest antiseptic and disinfectant?
A) Phenol C) Ethanol
B) Ether D) Methanol

Q.78 Which one of the following is NOT able to denature the ethanol?
A) Methanol C) Pyridine
B) Lactic acid D) Acetone

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Q.79 In the below reaction, the configuration of product is

δ+ δ― δ― δ+

HO- + H

C Br

HO- C+ Br-



H + Br-

A) 100% same of the configuration of reactant C) 50% inverted
B) 50% retained D) 100% opposite from configuration of reactant

Q.80 How will you distinguish between methanol and ethanol?
A) By Lucas test C) By oxidation
B) By silver mirror test D) By Iodoform test

Q.81 To produce absolute alcohol (100%) from rectified spirit (95.6% alcohol), the remaining 4.4% water must be removed by a drying agent such as
A) Calcium oxide C) Calcium carbonate
B) Calcium chloride D) Carbon monoxide

Q.82 Which one of the following is also called silver mirror test?
A) Fehling’s solution test C) Tollen’s reagent
B) Iodoform test D) Benedict’s solution tests

A) 1 C) 2
B) 3 D) 4

Q.86 The specific substances (metabolite) that fits on the enzyme surface and is converted to products is called
A) Co-factor C) Isoenzyme
B) Prosthetic group D) Substrate

Q.87 Polymide is formed due to the condensation od hexane-dioic acid with
A) Hexane-1,5-diamine C) Hexane-1,4-diamine
B) Hexane-1,6-diamine D) Hexane-2,5-diamine

Q.88 Haemoglobin is a
A) Genetic protein C) Transport protein
B) Building protein D) Structural protein

Q.89 Which one of the following polymer is polystyrene?


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A) C6H5



D) CH3

Q.90 Out of these which nitrogen base is NOT present in DNA?
A) Adenine C) Uracil
B) Guanine D) Thymine

Q.91 Which one of the following is an example of co-polymer?
A) Polyamide C) Polyvinyl acetate
B) Polystyrene D) Polyvinyl chloride

Q.92 The biggest source of acid rain is the oxide of
A) N C) O
B) S D) C

Q.93 Burning of which one of the following waste is considered as useful industrial fuel or to produce electricity

Q.97 10.0 grams of glucose are dissolved in water to make 100 cm3 of its solution, its molarity is:
A) 0.55 C) 10
B) 0.1 D) 1

Q.98 Given solution contains 16.0 g of CH3OH, 92.0 g of C2H5OH and 36 g of water. Which statement about mole fraction of the components is true?
A) Mole fraction of CH3OH is highest among all C) Mole fraction of CH3OH and C2H5OH is same components
B) Mole fraction of C2H5OH and H2O is the same D) Mole fraction of H2O is the lowest among all

Q.99 Study the following facts

Zn Zn+2 + 2e― Eo = +0.76 V
Cu Cu+2 + 2e― Eo = – 0.34 V

A) Cu + Zn+2 Cu+2 + Zn C) Cu+2 + Zn Cu + Zn+2

B) Cu+2 + Zn+2 Cu + Zn D) Cu+2 + Zn+2

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Q.100 Keeping in mind the electrode potential, which one of the following reactions is feasible?

A) Zn+2 + Cu Cu+2 + Zn C) Fe + CuSO4 FeSO4 + Cu

B) Zn + MgSO4 ZnSO4 + Mg D) Cd + MgSO4 CdSO4 + Mg

Q.101 What is the correct relation between pH and pK?


A) pH = pKa + log[ Base ] C) pH = pKa ― log[ Acid ]
Acid Base
B) pH = pKa ― log[ Base ] D) pH = pKa + log[ Acid ]
Q.102 Which one of the following is the correct presentation for Ksp?


AgCl Ag+ + Cl―

[Ag+1] [Cl-1]

A) Ksp = C) Ksp =
[Ag ] [Cl ]


B) Ksp = [Ag+1] [Cl-1] D) Ksp = [AgCl]


Q.107 He picked up one or two magazines and after a hurried glance on the contents carefully replaced them.
A) B) C) D)

Q.108 His guests found it fun to watch him to make tea – mixing careful spoonful from different caddies.
A) B) C) D)

Q.109 You have put your life in his hands many a times.
A) B) C) D)

Q.110 Chips, thinking it over a good many time, always added to himself that Kathie would have approved
A) B) C)
and also have been amused.

Q.111 But the men ate their supper in good appetites.
A) B) C) D)

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Q.112 A common sense of failure is a mistaken ambition of the boys on the part of his parents.
A) B) C) D)

In each of the following question, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the CORRECT one and fill the Circle corresponding to that letter in the MCQ Response Form.

A) Tourism is burgeoned over the last fifteen years. C) Tourism have burgeoned over the last fifteen years.
B) Tourism will burgeoned over the last fifteen years. D) Tourism has burgeoned over the last fifteen years.

A) His remains were interred in the new cemetery. C) His remains was interred in the new cemetery.
B) His remains were entered in the new cemetery. D) His remains was entered in the new cemetery.
A) They had died in the same day. C) They had died on the same day.
B) They had died over the same day. D) They had died of the same day.
A) She had turned on the supper steaks when the telephone rang.
B) She had turned over the supper steaks when the telephone rang.
C) She had turned into the supper steaks when the telephone rang.
D) She had turned in the supper steaks when the telephone rang.
A) Empty of concord is the soul of wit. C) Empty of concord is the sole of wit.
B) Empty of concord is the role of wit. D) Empty of concord is the howl of wit.
A) The cheery trees stand over the woodland ride. C) The cheery trees stand beside the woodland ride.
B) The cheery trees stand about the woodland ride. D) The cheery trees stand on the woodland ride.
A) He made me to write the sum on the slip and to sign my name in a book.
B) He made me write the sum on/at the slip and to sign my name in a book.
C) He made me to write the sum on the slip and sign my name in a book.
D) He made me to write the sum in a slip and to sign my name in a book.
A) I am looking forward to secure excellent marks in MCAT.
B) I am looking forward to securing excellent marks in MCAT.
C) I am looking forward securing excellent marks in MCAT.
D) I am looking forward secure excellent marks in MCAT.
A) The study of population growth indicates one of the greatest paradox of our time.
B) The study of population growth indicate one of the greatest paradox of our time.
C) The study of population growth indicates one of the greatest paradoxes of our time.
D) The study of population growth indicates one of the greatest paradox in our time.
A) In North Africa, he barely escaped assassination at the hand of the governor of the province.
B) In North Africa, he barely escaped from assassination at the hands of the governor of the province.
C) In North Africa, he barely escaped from assassination at the hand of the governor of the province.
D) In North Africa, he barely escaped assassination at the hands of the governor of the province.

In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word and fill the appropriate Circle on the MCQ Response Form.

A) Understanding C) Friendship
B) Animosity D) Sympathy

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A) Boredom C) Happiness
B) Business D) Relaxation

A) Exact C) Good
B) Opposite D) Strange

A) Progressive C) Healthy
B) Harmful D) Positive

Q.127 RAPT
A) Trumpet C) Rapid
B) Bewitched D) Rash

A) The study of pediatrics C) The study of cultural heritage
B) The study of teaching methods D) The study of pectoral muscle

A) Humiliation C) Accusation
B) Offended D) Invisible

A) Malaria C) Dengue
B) Typhoid D) Tetanus

Q.135 B-lymphocytes are named due to their relationship with:
A) Blood C) Bone Marrow
B) Bursa of Fabricius D) Bile Duct

Q.136 In light independent stage of photosynthesis, the CO2 combines with to form an unstable 6-carbon intermediate.
A) Ribulose bisphosphate C) Glycerate-3-phosphate
B) Hexose sugar D) Glyceraldehyde-9-phosphate

Q.137 In glycolysis, glycerate-1,3-bisphosphate is converted into glycerate-3-phosphate by losing
phosphate molecules.
A) 3 C) 1
B) 2 D) 4

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Q.138 Malate is oxidized by to oxaloacetate in Krebs’s Cycle.

Q.139 In electron transport chain, the electrons from NADH and FADH2 are passed to;
A) Cytochrome a C) Co-enzyme c
B) Cytochrome a3 D) Co-enzyme Q

Q.140 Carriers of the respiratory chain are located on:
A) Matrix of mitochondria C) Inner membrane of mitochondria
B) Outer membrane of mitochondria D) Cytoplasmic matrix

Q.141 In cystic fibrosis, liposomes-microscopic vesicles are sued which are coated with:
A) Healthy Gene C) Protein
B) Chromosome D) Carbohydrate

Q.142 The DNA formed by the reverse transcription is called:

Q.143 Bacterial cells take up recombinant plasmids when they are treated with:
A) CaCl2 C) KCl
B) NaCl D) NaOH

Q.149 During successions, the first organisms that develop on bare rock are:
A) Lichens C) Moss
B) Shrubs D) Herbs

Q.150 Trophic level of a herbivore in given food-web is:

Fox Owl Dog

Bettle Rat Rabbit Grass
A) 1 C) 4
B) 3 D) 2

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Q.151 During maternal mitosis, non-disjunction of autosomal chromosome pair results in the formation of an egg having 24 chromosomes in:
A) Klinefelter’s Syndrome C) Turner’s Syndrome
B) Down’s Syndrome D) Jacob’s Syndrome
Q.152 Typical symptoms like enlarged breasts and small testis in male are attributed to:
A) Down’s Syndrome C) Klinefelter’s Syndrome
B) Turner’s Syndrome D) Phenylketonuria
Q.153 Fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane states that protein molecules float in a fluid layer.
A) Galactose C) Glucose
B) Phospholipids D) Carbohydrate
Q.154 How many triplets of microtubules are present in centriole?
A) Ten C) Nine
B) Eight D) Seven
Q.155 Turner’s syndrome is characterized by having:
A) Trisomy 21 C) Trisomy 18
B) 44 + XXY D) 44 + XO
Q.156 Which one of the following cell structure is involved in the synthesis of lipids?
A) Endoplasmic Reticulum C) Centriole
B) Golgi Complex D) Mitochondria

Q.163 Right atrium is separated from right ventricle by:
A) Bicuspid Valve C) Tricuspid Valve
B) Semilunar Valve D) Interatrial Septum

Q.164 The flaps of tricuspid valves are attached to muscular extensions of right ventricle known as:
A) Smooth Muscles C) Intercostal Muscles
B) Papillary Muscles D) Skeletal Muscles
Q.165 One complete heart beat consists of one systole and one diastole and lasts for about:
A) 0.8 sec C) 0.4 sec
B) 0.2 sec D) 0.5 sec
Q.166 The heart beat cycle starts when electric impulses are generated from;
A) AV Node C) SA Node
B) SV Node D) PQ Node

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Q.167 About 70-85% CO2 in blood is carried:
A) As carboxylase myoglobin C) Freely as CO2
B) With proteins in plasma D) As bicarbonate

Q.168 Those nephrons which are present along the border of the cortex and medulla are called:
A) Juxtamedullary nephrons C) Internal nephrons
B) Cortical nephrons D) Outer nephrons

Q.169 When water is in short supply, increased water retention occurs through the:
A) Cortical nephrons C) Juxtamedullary nephrons
B) Proximal Convoluted Tubule D) The tissue of cortex

Q.170 In nephrons, counter-current multiplier occurs at:
A) Loop of Henle C) Bowman’s Capsule
B) Collecting Duct D) Glomerulus

Q.171 Ascending loop of Henle does not allow outflow of:
A) Na+ ions C) Cl― ions
B) K+ ions D) Water

Q.172 A larger quantity of dilute urine is produced in diabetes insipidus. This disease is due to the deficiency of:
A) Antidiuretic Hormone C) Thyroxine
B) Aldosterone D) Cortisol

(mV) -50 ― x⭢
-100 ―

Time (milliseconds)

A) Depolarization C) Repolarization
B) Polarization D) Hyperpolarization

Q.178 In human testis, which structure is responsible for carrying sperm from inside the testis?
A) Seminiferous tubules C) Seminal Vesicles
B) Urinogenital duct D) Vasa efferentia

Q.179 In which part of female reproductive system fertilization takes place?
A) Proximal part of oviduct C) Placenta
B) Uterus D) Vagina

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Q.180 In females, FSH stimulates the ovary to produce:
A) Progesterone C) Oestrogen
B) Lactin D) Oxytocin

Q.181 Syphilis, sexually transmitted disease is caused by:
A) HIV C) Neisseria gonorhoeae
B) Treponema pallidum D) Type ‘2’ virus

Q.182 In which phase of human female menstrual cycle, endometrium prepares for the implantation of embryo?
A) Proliferative phase C) Secretory phase
B) Menstrual phase D) Ovulation phase

Q.183 The total number of cervical and thoracic vertebrate in human vertebral column is:
A) 7 C) 14
B) 19 D) 33

Q.184 A sarcomere is the region of a myofibril between two successive:
A) M-lines C) I-bands
B) Z-lines D) T-tubules

Q.185 The sarcolemma of muscle fibre folds inwards and forms a system of tubes which runs through the sarcoplasm called:
A) Myofilaments C) Z-lines
B) Sarcoplasmic reticulum D) Transverse tubules

Q.186 According to sliding filament theory, when muscle fibers are stimulated by nervous system, which of the following changes occurs?
A) I-bands shorten C) Z-lines move further apart
B) H-zone becomes more visible D) A-bands shorten

Q.187 If lactic acid build up in thigh muscles, it causes muscle tiredness and pain. This condition is called:
A) Muscle Fatigue C) Cramps
B) Tetany D) Oxygen debt in muscles

Q.188 Thyroxine deficiency in adults’ results in a condition called:
A) Cretinism C) Thyrotoximia
B) Hypothyroidism D) Myxoedema

Q.189 α-cells of pancreas secrete a hormone known as:
A) Glucagon C) Gastrin
B) Insulin D) Rennin

Q.190 X-linked recessive trait is:
A) Hypophosphatemia C) Haemophilia
B) Vitamin-D resistant rickets D) Diabetes Mellitus

Q.191 Human skin colour is a good example of?
A) Sex-linked inheritance C) x-linked inheritance
B) Polygenic inheritance D) y-linked inheritance

Q.192 From evolutionary point of view, which respiratory protein is common in many organisms?
A) Cytochrome a C) Cytochrome c
B) Cytochrome b D) Cytochrome d

Q.193 Number of pairs of autosomes in humans in:
A) 23 C) 21
B) 24 D) 22

Q.194 ABO blood system is an example of:
A) Polygenes C) Multiple Alleles
B) Multiple genes D) Multiple Mutation

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Q.195 Which molecular structure of enzyme is essential for activity of enzyme?
A) Primary Structure C) Secondary Structure
B) Quaternary Structure D) Tertiary Structure

Q.196 Which one of the following edible products is widely pasteurized?
A) Soft drinks C) Milk
B) Mango squash D) Orange Juice

Q.197 Ribosomes are tiny organisms, which are involved in the synthesis of:
A) Protein C) Nucleus
B) RNA D) Nuclosome

Q.198 Which organelle is bounded by two membranes?
A) Ribosome C) Lysosome
B) Mitochondria D) Nucleolus

Q.199 At the beginning of nuclear division, the number of microtubule triplets in two pairs of centrioles that migrate to opposite poles are:
A) 9 C) 108
B) 18 D) 36

Q.200 The disease in which an individual has extra sex chromosome (44 + XXY) is known as:
A) Down’s syndrome C) Klinefelter’s syndrome
B) Tuner’s syndrome D) Jacob’s syndrome

Q.206 Pepsin, protein digesting enzymes, sets best pH:
A) 3.00 C) 2.00
B) 4.50 D) 6.00

Q.207 Which one of the following is an example of competitive inhibitor?
A) Glucose C) Succinic Acid
B) Fumerate D) Melonate

Q.208 HIV is classified as:
A) Bacteriophage C) Retrovirus
B) Oncovirus D) Icosahedral virus

Q.209 Cyanobacteria are:
A) Photoautotrophic bacteria C) Saprotrophic bacteria
B) Chemosynthetic bacteria D) Parasitic bacteria

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Q.210 During favourable conditions, certain bacteria produces:
A) Ribosomes C) Mitochondria
B) Plasmids D) Spores

Q.211 In rhizopus, zygote forms temporary, dormant, thick-walled resistant structure called:
A) Zygospore C) Sporangia
B) Spore D) Hydra

Q.212 is a triploblastic organism.
A) Jelly Fish C) Tapeworm
B) Sea Anemone D) Corals

Q.213 In arthropods, the body cavity is in the form of:
A) Coelem C) Psedocoelem
B) Haemocoel D) Enteron

Q.214 is a good example of polymorphism.
A) Hydra C) Obelia
B) Starfish D) Equplectella

Q.215 Name common gut roundworm parasite of human and pigs.
A) Aascaris lumberocoides C) Pheretima posthuma
B) Lumbericus terresaris D) Hirudo Medicinalis

The hormone which inhibits the secretion of pancreatic juice is:
A) Secretin C) Thyroxine
B) Gastrin D) Parathormone

Oxyntic cells in stomach produces:
A) Pepsin
B) Pepsinogen
C) Gastrin
D) HCl

 is also called liver fluke.

A) Dugesia
B) Taenia
C) Fasciola
D) Coral

Trypsinogen is activated to trypsin by:
A) HCl
B) Enterokinase
C) Mucus
D) Gastrin

The emulsification of fats is the role of:
A) Saliva
B) Pancreatic juice
C) Gastrin
D) Bile

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