UHS MDCAT Past Paper 2012

UHS MDCAT Past Paper MCQs 2012

What happens to the magnet as the iron core is inserted into the solenoid?
A) It moves towards solenoid and rotates through C) It moves away from solenoid 180o
B) It moves towards the solenoid D) It moves away from solenoid and rotates through 180o

Q.2 A 10 cm long solenoid has 100 turns. What will be the magnetic field inside it along its axis if one micro ampere current is passed through it?
A) 4π x 10-13 tesla C) 4π x 10-10 tesla
B) 4π x 10-7 tesla D) 4π x 10-16 tesla

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Q.3 Two long straight parallel wires held vertically have equal but opposite currents as shown in the figure.



Which of the following effect will be observed?
A) Magnetic field at ‘X’ is stronger than that at ‘Y’ and ‘Z’
B) Magnetic field at ‘X’ is weaker than that at ‘Y’ and ‘Z’
C) Magnetic field at ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ is same
D) Magnetic field at ‘X’ is weaker than that at ‘Y’ but stronger than that at ‘Z’.

Q.4 The kinetic energy K.E. with which the electron strikes the target is given by:
A) K.E. = e2V C) K.E. = hf2
B) K.E. = hc/λ D) K.E. = eV

Q.5 LASER is an acronym for:
A) Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation
B) Light annihilation by stimulated emission of radiation
C) Light amplitude of stimulated emission of radiation
D) Light amplification by stimulated emission of radio

Q.11 What is the charge on alpha particles emitted during the phenomenon of radioactivity?
A) +e C) –2e
B) –e D) +2e

Q.12 A radioactive nuclide decays by emitting an alpha particle, a beta particle and a gamma ray photon, the change in the nucleon number will be:
A) -4 C) -2
B) -1 D) -3

Q.13 A half-life of sodium-24 is which is used to estimate the volume of blood in a patient:
A) 6 hours C) 8 hours
B) 15 hours D) 15 days

Q.14 Which of the following is unit of absorbed dose?
A) Sievert C) Roentgen
B) Gray D) Curie

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Q.15 In a radioactive phenomenon observation shown in figure where α deviates lesser than β in
some electric or magnetic field (not shown in figure). What is the reason of less deviation of α?


A) α is charged particle C) α is heavier particle
C) α is neutral particle D) α is lighter particle

Q.16 The isotope of Iodine-131 is used in the treatment of
A) Blood cancer C) Lung tumor
B) Bone cancer D) Thyroid cancer

Q.17 Which of the following effect is observed due to emission of β― during the phenomenon of radioactivity?

A) (OP)(F tanϴ) C) (OP)(F sinϴ)
B) (OP)(F) D) (OP)(F cosϴ)

Q.21 An object of mass ‘m’ is suspended in an elevator moving downward with acceleration equal to acceleration due to gravity. What is the apparent weight of object?
A) Zero C) mg
B) 2mg D) 2

Q.22 Stokes’ Law for steady motion in a fluid of infinite extent is given by
A) F = 6πηrv C) F = 6πηr2ρ
B) F = (4/3)πr3ρg D) F = 2gr2ρ/9η

Q.23 If speed of efflux through a small hole in a large tank is 9.8 m/s. Find the height at the fluid above the hole
A) 1 m C) 4.9 m
B) 9.8 m D) 19.6 m

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Q.24 Flow speed of the fluid through a non-uniform pipe increases from 1 m/sec to 3 m/sec. If change in P.E. is zero, then pressure difference between two points will be: (density of the fluid = 1000 kg/m3)
A) 1000 N/m2 C) 8000 N/m2
B) 9000 N/m2 D) 4000 N/m2

Q.25 Polarization of light exhibited the nature of light as
A) Longitudinal wave C) Transverse wave
B) Compressional wave D) Electromagnetic wave

Q.26 The concentration of a sugar solution can be determined by
A) Un-polarized light C) Interference of light
B) Plane polarized light D) Diffraction of light

Q.27 The information from one place to another can be transmitted very safely and easily by:
A) Copper wire C) Photodiode
B) Aluminium wire D) Optical fibre

Q.28 The image of an object placed inside the focal length of a convex lens will be largest and clearest when it is at the
A) Less than 25 cm C) Greater than 25 cm
B) Near point D) Infinity

Q.29 A simple harmonic oscillator has a time period of 10 seconds. Which equation rotates its
acceleration ‘a’ and displacement ‘x’?
2π 2
A) a = -2 x C) a = -(10) x
B) a = -(20π)x D) a = -(20π)2x

Q.30 When the length of a simple pendulum is doubled, find the ratio of the new frequency to the old frequency?
A) 1/4 C) √2
B) 1/2 D) 1/√2

Q.31 In the diagram below, the displacement of an oscillating particle is plotted against time. What
does the length ‘PR’ on the time axis represents?



A) Twice the frequency C) Half the frequency
B) Half the period D) Twice the period

Q.32 When the source of sound moves towards the stationary observer, the value of apparent
frequency ‘fo’ is:

A) f

v+ui v
= ( ) f C) f = ( ) f

o v
B) f = (


) f D) f =

v−ui) f

o v−ui

o ( v

Q.33 The ratio of tensile strength to tensile strain is called
A) Modulus of elasticity C) Young’s Modulus
B) Bulk Modulus D) Shear Modulus

Q.34 A wire is stretched by a force ‘F’ which causes an extension ∆l, the energy stored in the wire is:
A) F∆l C) ½ F∆l2
B) 2F∆l D) ½ F∆l

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Q.35 H2 and O2 both are at thermal equilibrium at temperature 300 K. Oxygen molecule is 16 times massive than hydrogen. Root mean square speed of hydrogen is
A) 4 root mean square of oxygen C) 1/16 root mean square of oxygen
B) ¼ root mean square of oxygen D) 1/6 root mean square of oxygen

Q.36 Which of the following is expression of mean square speed of ‘N’ gas molecules contained in a cylinder?
v1+ v2+…+ vx v1+ v2+…+ vx
A) N C)√ N

B) v12+ v22+…+ vx2

D) √v12+ v22+…+ vx2

Q.37 If ‘Q’ is the amount of heat supplied to a system and ‘W’ is the work done, then change in internal energy can be defined as
A) Q/W C) W/Q
B) Q – W D) 1 + Q/W

Q.38 A heat engine operating according to second law of thermodynamics rejects one fourth of the heat taken from high temperature reservoir. What is the percentage efficiency of heat engine? A) 100% C) 50%
B) 25% D) 75%

Q.39 First law of thermodynamics under adiabatic conditions can be mathematically written as:
A) Q = W C) Q = U + W

Q.43 10 V potential difference is applied across the plate of 1 µF capacitor. What is the energy storied in capacitor?
A) 0.5 mJ C) 5 mJ
B) 0.05 mJ D) 50 mJ

Q.44 Which one of the following is I-V curve of a junction diode?

A) B) C)

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Q.45 In the below reaction the nucleophile which attacks on the carbon atom of acid is:



C Cl + POCl3 + HCl

A) OH– C) Cl–
B) P D) H–

Q.46 When ethanol chloride reacts with methylamine, an amide is formed. What is the structure of the amide formed?

A) H3C

B) H3C






C) H3C

D) H3C




Q.47 Organic compound containing both amine and carboxyl group is known as
A) Amino acid C) Saccharide
B) Fatty acid D) Amide


B) H2N








Q.50 The skeletal formula of dipeptide formed between aspartic acid and phenylalanine is given below:

How many functional groups are present in its formula?
A) 1 C) 4
B) 2 D) 3

Q.51 In basic conditions, amino acid exists in which of the following forms?

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B) H2N



Q.52 Structure of dipeptide is

This is called:






A) Glycyl glycine C) Alaninyl alanine
C) Glycyl alanine D) Alaninyl glycine

Q.53 The principle energy storage carbohydrate in animal’s is
A) Glucose C) Protein
B) Starch D) Glycogen

Q.54 Starch is a polymer of
A) β–D–glucose C) γ–D–glucose
B) α– –glucose D) α–L–glucose

Q.55 The reaction between fats and caustic soda is called
A) Hydrogenolysis C) Esterification
B) Fermentation D) Saponification

Q.56 Adipic acid and hexamethylene diamine both of which have carbon atoms:
A) Seven C) Six
B) Eight D) Four

Q.57 Lactose is a sugar present in milk. It is an example of
A) Disaccharides C) Polysaccharides
B) Monosaccharides D) Starch

Q.58 Macromolecules are described as large molecules built up from small repeating units called:
A) Monomers C) Metamers
B) Isomers D) Tautomers

Q.59 The increase in concentration of oxidizing agents in smog like H2O2, HNO3, PAN and ozone in the air is called
A) Carbonated smog C) Photochemical smog
B) Nitrated smog D) Sulphonated smog

Q.60 Which is the metal, whose elevated concentration is harmful for fish as it clogs the gills thus causing suffocation?
A) Sodium C) Zinc
B) Lead D) Aluminium

Q.61 An organic compound has empirical formula C3H3O, if molar mass of compound is 110.15 gmol-1. The molecular formula of this organic compound is (A, of C=12, H=1.008 and O=16)
A) C6H6O2 C) C9H9O3
C) C3H3O D) C6H6O3

Q.62 When 8 grams (4 moles) of H2 react with 2 moles of O2, how many moles of water will be formed?
A) Five C) Six
B) Four D) Three

Q.63 The number of molecules in 22.4 dm3 of H2 gas at 0 °C and 1 atm are
A) 60.2 x 1023 C) 6.02 x 1025
B) 6.02 x 1022 D) 6.02 x 1022

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Q.64 Correct order of boiling points of the given liquid is
A) H2O > HF > HCl > NH3 C) H2O > HF > NH3 > HCl
B) HF > H2O > HCl > NH3 D) HF > H2O > NH3 > HCl

Q.65 The relative energies of 4s, 4p and 3d orbitals are in the order
A) 3d < 4p <4s C) 4p < 4s < 3d
B) 4s < 3d < 4p D) 4p < 3d < 4s

Q.66 With increase in the value of Principal Quantum Number ‘n’, the shape of the s-orbitals remains the same although their sizes
A) Decrease C) Remain the same
B) Increase D) May or may not remain the same

Q.67 The angle between unhybridized p-orbital and three sp2 hybrid orbitals of each carbon atom in ether is:
A) 120° C) 109.5°
B) 90° D) 180°

Q.68 In ‘H-F’ bond electronegativity difference is ‘1.9’. What is the type of this bond?
A) Polar covalent bond C) Pi (π) bond
B) Non-polar covalent bond D) Co-ordinate covalent bond

Q.69 ‘∆H’ will be given a negative sign in

Q.75 Formation of NH3 is reversible and exothermic process, what will happen on cooling?
A) More reactant will form C) More H2 will be formed
B) More N2 will be formed D) More product (NH3) will be formed

Q.76 A buffer solution is that which resists/minimizes the change in
A) pOH C) pKa
B) pH D) pKb

Q.77 In some reactions, a product formed acts as a catalyst. The phenomenon is called
A) Negative Catalysis C) Hetergeneous catalysis
B) Activation of Catalyst D) Autocatalysis

Q.78 The reaction rate in forward direction decreases with the passage of time because
A) Concentration of reactants decrease C) The order of reaction changes
B) Concentration of product decreases D) Temperature of the system changes

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Q.79 Which one remains same along a period?
A) Atomic radius C) Number of shells (orbits)
B) Melting point D) Electrical conductivity

Q.80 More the ionization energy of an element:
A) More the electropositivity C) Less the metallic character
B) More the reducing power D) Bigger the atomic radius

Q.81 Alkaline earth metal hydroxides decompose on heating. Which of the following reactions is a correct representation of this decomposition?
A) M(OH)2(s) MO(s) + H2O(l) C) 2MOH2(s) 2MO(s) + H2(l)
B) MOH(s) M2O(s) + H2O(l) D) 4MOH(s) 4M(s) + 2H2O(l) + O2

Q.82 Carbon has the unique ability to form long chains by bonding with other carbon atoms. This property of self-linking in carbon is known as:
A) Condensation C) Cyclization
B) Polymerization D) Catenation

Q.83 Oxidation state of ‘Mn’ in KMnO4, K2MnO4, MnO2 and MnSO4 is in the order:
A) +7, +6, +2, +4 C) +7, +6, +4, +2
B) +6, +7, +2, +4 D) +4, +6, +7, +2

Q.84 Which pair of transition elements shows abnormal electronic configuration?
A) Sc and Zn C) Zn and Cu
B) Cu and Sc D) Cu and Cr

Q.90 In the following, which one is free radical?
A) Cl― C) Cl2
B) Cl+ D) Clo

Q.91 The introduction of R

C+ group in benzene is called

A) Acylation C) Alkylation
B) Carbonyl reduction D) Formylation

Q.92 The alkaline hydrolysis of bromoethane shown below gives alcohol as the product:


The reagent and the condition used in this reaction may be:
A) H2O at room temperature C) KOH in alcohol
B) Ethanol, heat D) Dilute NaOH(aq) warm

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Q.93 In the reaction of ethane with bromine the intermediate formed is




Br+ C)




B) Br D) H2C


Q.94 In substitution reactions, dihaloalkane or secondary halogenoalkane give / show:
A) SN1 Mechanism C) Both E1 and E2
B) SN2 Mechanism D) Both SN1 and SN2

Q.95 The dehydration of ethyl alcohol with concentrated H2SO4 at 140°C gives:
A) Ethene C) Alcohol
B) Diethyl ether D) Carboxylic acid

Q.96 Ethanol can be converted in to ethanoic acid by:
A) Oxidation C) Hydration
B) Fermentation D) Hydrogenation

Q.97 The following structure is of:


Q.101 Iodoform test will not be positive with:

A) H3C

B) H3C



C) C2H5 OH

D) H3C C H

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Q.102 When CH3―CH2―OH is oxidized in the presence of K2Cr2O7 and H2SO4, the product formed is


A) H3C



C) H3C




D) H3C


Q.103 He had a heart attack and all attempts to him failed.
A) Renew C) Revise
B) Resuscitate D) Refurnish

Q.104 The stench of dead animals and plants made Mumtaz ill.
A) Putrid C) Perturbed
B) Purified D) Purchased

Q.105 While going up the hills, by bus, she felt inside.
A) Fishy C) Queasy
B) Itchy D) Squeezy

Q.106 The craft statesman manipulated the situation by making false promises and declaring sport festivities as a to fool the public.
A) Red-Hearing C) Red-Herring
B) Red-Feather D) Red-Haring

SPOT THE ERROR: In the following sentences, some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected. Fill the Circle corresponding to that letter under the segment in the MCQ Response From.

Q.107 The theory was discarded as there was no corroborating evidence for its favour.
A) B) C) D)

Q.108 The workers were raising much hue and cry when their demands were turned away.
A) B) C) D)

Q.109 Aslam was badly cudgeled from his step-brother. He received many bruises and contusions. Thank God! No
A) B) C)
injury was serious.

Q.110 I extend a cordial invitation for you to visit our farm house. We have grown vegetables without chemical
A) B) C)
fertilizers over there.

Q.111 Although he is not a close relative of me, yet I was greeted with a show of deep cordiality.
A) B) C) D)

Q.112 This antibiotic destroys red corpuscles in the blood and cause pernicious anaemia.
A) B) C) D)

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In each of the following question, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the CORRECT one and fill the Circle corresponding to that letter in the MCQ Response Form.

A) Why does not Nomana remained true to her husband?
B) Why did not Nomana remain true to her husband?
C) Why had not Nomana remain true to her husband?
D) Why did not Nomana remained true to her husband?

A) All my childhood, I longed desperately in for a tricycle.
B) All my childhood, I longed desperately to a tricycle.
C) All my childhood, I longed desperately for a tricycle.
D) All my childhood, I longed desperately at a tricycle.

A) She felt unreal to the voice informed her of the subway accident.
B) She felt unreal as the voice informed her of the subway accident.
C) She felt unreal that the voice informed her of the subway accident.
D) She felt unreal for the voice informed her of the subway accident.

A) Bill Gates is one of the wealthiest person in the world.
B) Bill Gates is one of the wealthy person in the world.
C) Bill Gates is one of the wealthiest persons in the world.
D) Bill Gates is one of the more wealthy person in the world.

A) Her father is a SP in the Punjab Police. C) Her father is an SP in the Punjab Police.
B) Her father was a SP in the Punjab Police. D) Her father are a SP in the Punjab Police.

A) There were musical instruments in the shop. C) There has musical instruments in the shop.
B) There was musical instruments in the shop. D) There is musical instruments in the shop.

A) He died for heart attack in 1982. C) He died in heart attack in 1982.
B) He died with heart attack in 1982. D) He died of heart attack in 1982.

A) Always speak in the truth. C) Always tell the truth.
B) Always tell for the truth. D) Always telling truth.

A) Hand up the answer sheet to me. C) Hand down the answer sheet to me.
B) Hand over the answer sheet to me. D) Hand for the answer sheet to me.

A) Are you noticed the peach blossoms? C) Will you noticed the peach blossoms?
B) Have you noticed the peach blossoms? D) Were you noticed the peach blossoms?

In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word and fill the appropriate Circle on the MCQ Response Form.

A) Inconsistency C) Perceptible
B) Expansion D) Warp

A) Pudding C) Deluge
B) Minor D) Treble

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A) Dusty C) Clear
B) Squeamy D) Unclear

Q.126 FAUX
A) Blunder C) Indiscretion
B) Mistake D) False

A) Countable C) Measured
B) Multitude D) Blurred

A) Fallacy C) Delicate
B) Depict D) Superficial

A) Masterpiece C) Modest
B) Magnanimity D) Magnetic

A) Sneak C) Siege
B) Sift D) Sieve


Q.136 Syphilis is a sexually transmitted disease which is caused by
A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae C) Treponema pallidum
B) E. coli D) Mycobacterium avium

Q.137 Discharge of ovum or secondary oocyte from ovary or from Graafian follicle is called
A) Fertilization C) Follicle formation
B) Pollination D) Ovulation

Q.138 Second meiotic division in the secondary oocyte proceeds as far as
A) Metaphase C) Anaphase
B) Prophase D) Telophase

Q.139 Which one of the following differentiates directly into mature sperm?
A) Primary spermatocyte C) Spermatogonia
B) Secondary spermatocyte D) Spermatid

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Q.140 Uterus opens into the vagina through
A) Cervix C) External genitalia
B) Fallopian tube D) Vulva

Q.141 Each muscle fibre is surrounded by membrane which is called
A) Sarcomere C) Twitch fibre
B) Sarcolemma D) Capsule

Q.142 When calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum they bind with _ during muscle contraction
A) Tropomyosin C) Cytosol’s ions
B) Sarcolemma D) Troponin

Q.143 Human and mammalian skeleton can be divided into two parts, axial skeleton and
A) Appendicular skeleton C) Endoskeleton
B) Exoskeleton D) Hydrostatic skeleton

Q.144 Last four vertebrae in humans are fused to form a structure called
A) Sacrum C) Pubis
B) Cervical vertebrae D) Coccyx

Q.145 How many bones are involved in the formation of each half of pelvic girdle?
A) 3 bones C) 2 bones
B) 4 bones D) 1 bone

Q.151 Antibodies are produced by which of the following lymphocytes?
A) B lymphocytes C) T lymphocytes
B) A lymphocytes D) B and T lymphocytes

Q.152 T-lymphocytes become mature and competent under the influence of
A) Liver C) Thymus gland
B) Bursa of fabricius D) Spleen

Q.153 Skin and mucous membranes are part of the body defense system and they form the
A) Physical barrier C) Chemical barriers
B) Mechanical barriers D) Biological barriers

Q.154 Snake bite is treated with which type of immunization?
A) Active C) Humoral
B) Passive D) Specific

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Q.155 The product(s) of cyclic photophosphorylation is / are:
B) NADP D) NADP, ATP, and O2

Q.156 Total NADH formed by one glucose molecule during Krebs’s Cycle are
A) 6 C) 8
B) 3 D) 18

Q.157 The terminal electron acceptor in electron transport chain is
A) Hydrogen C) Cytochrome
B) Iron D) Oxygen

Q.158 The end product of glycolysis is
A) ADP C) Citric acid
B) Reduced FAD D) Pyruvate

Q.159 One molecule of FADH2 is produced in Krebs’s cycle during conversion of
A) Fumarate Malate C) Malate Oxaloacetate
B) Succinate Fumarate D) α-Ketoglutarate Succinate

Q.160 In recombinant DNA technology are tools for manipulating DNA
A) Viruses C) Enzymes
B) Chromosomes D) Genes

A) Trophic level C) Energy pyramid
B) Food web D) Food chain

Q.167 A relationship between two or more organisms of different species in which all partners get benefit is called
A) Symbiosis C) Commensalism
B) Parasitism D) Predation

Q.168 Bacteria and fungi are examples of
A) Producers C) Consumers
B) Decomposers D) Denvers

Q.169 The cause of acid rain is
A) Oxides of carbon C) Oxides of Sulphur
B) Oxides of nitrogen and Sulphur D) Oxides of nitrogen

Page 16 of 19
Q.170 When the presence of a gene at one locus suppresses the effect of a gene at another locus, the phenomenon is called
A) Hypostasis C) Epistasis
B) Pleiotropy D) Epitropy

Q.171 The gene for ABO-blood group systems in humans is represented by symbol:
A) X C) Y
B) I D) O

Q.172 When a single gene affects two or more traits, the phenomenon is called
A) Epistasis C) Dominance
B) Pleiotropy D) Over dominance

Q.173 The comparative embryology of all vertebrates shows development of
A) Hairs C) Scales
B) Gill pouches D) Fins

Q.174 In men, sex-determination depends upon the nature of
A) Heterogametic male C) Heterogametic female
B) Homogametic female D) Homogametic male

Q.175 Population of different species (plants and animals) living in the same habitat form a
A) Community C) Biosphere
B) Ecosystem D) Microhabitat

A) Phospholipids only C) Lipids and carbohydrates
B) Lipids and proteins D) Glycoproteins

Q.181 Endoplasmic reticulum contains a system of flattened membrane-bounded sacs which are named as
A) Cristae C) Cisternae
B) Marks D) Tubules

Q.182 Lipids synthesis / metabolism takes place in which of the following organelle?
A) Mitochondria C) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
B) Vacuoles D) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Q.183 Ribosomes exist in two forms, either attached with RER or freely dispersed in the
A) Tonoplast C) Cytoplasm
B) Golgi bodies D) SER

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Q.184 Exchange of segments between homologous chromosomes is called
A) Segregation C) Crossing over
B) Independent assortment D) Mutation

Q.185 If a person has 44 autosomes + XXY, he will suffer from
A) Klinefelter’s syndrome C) Turner’s syndrome
B) Down’s syndrome D) Edward’s syndrome

Q.186 The ribosomal RNA is synthesized and stored in
A) Endoplasmic reticulum C) Golgi complex
B) Nucleolus D) Chromosomes

Q.187 In which stage of Interphase, there is increase in cell size and many biochemical are formed?
A) G2 phase C) S phase
B) G1 phase D) C phase

Q.188 In Down’s syndrome, which one of the following pair of chromosome fails to segregate?
A) 7 C) 21
B) 18 D) 19

Q.189 Carbohydrates are organic molecules and contain three elements
A) Carbon, water and oxygen C) Carbon, calcium and hydrogen
B) Carbon, Sulphur and hydrogen D) Carbon, hydrogen and oxygen

Q.190 Which one are intermediates in respiration and photosynthesis both?

A) Reversible inhibitors C) Competitive inhibitors
B) Irreversible inhibitors D) Non-competitive inhibitors

Q.196 Enzyme succinate dehydrogenase converts succinate into
A) Malate C) Citrate
B) Malonic acid D) Fumarate

Q.197 If the detachable co-factor is an inorganic ion then it is designated as
A) Coenzyme C) Holoenzyme
B) Prosthetic group D) Activator

Q.198 In HIV viruses, reverse transcriptase converts single-stranded RNA into double stranded viral DNA. This process is called
A) Translation C) Replication
B) Duplication D) Reverse Transcriptase

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Q.199 Mesosomes are infoldings of the cell membrane and are involved in
A) DNA replication C) Protein synthesis
B) RNA synthesis D) Metabolism

Q.200 Most widespread problem of the antibiotics misuse is the
A) Rapid cure C) Disturbance of metabolism
B) Increased resistance in pathogen D) Immunity

Q.201 Which of the following component is found in the cell wall of fungi?
A) Cellulose C) Proteins
B) Chitin D) Glycerol

Q.202 The male reproductive parts of the flower are called
A) Gynoecium C) Androecium
B) Calyx D) Corolla

Q.203 Fasciola is the name given to
A) Tapeworm C) Liver fluke
B) Planaria D) Earthworm

Q.204 Ascaris is
A) Diploblastic C) Haploid
B) Triploblastic D) Acoelomate

Q.205 During development, in an animal, mesoderm layer gives rise to

A) HCl C) Enzymes
B) Mucus D) Amylase

Q.211 Mature mammalian red blood cells do not have
A) Nucleus C) Fluids
B) Red color D) Haemoglobin

Q.212 In a normal person plasma constitutes about by volume of blood
A) 50% C) 45%
B) 60% D) 55%

Q.213 Which vein has oxygenated blood?
A) Renal vein B) Pulmonary vein
B) Subclavian vein D) Jugular vein

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Q.214 What is the residual volume of air which always remains inside the lungs of human?
A) 3.5 Liters C) 5.0 Liters
B) 0.5 Liters D) 1.5 Liters

Q.215 In nephron, most of the reabsorption takes place in the
A) Distal tubule C) Ascending limb
B) Proximal tubule D) Descending limb

Q.216 Detection of change and signaling for effector’s response to the control system is a
A) Negative feedback C) Inter-coordination
B) Positive feedback D) Feedback mechanism

Q.217 What are three components of mechanism of homeostatic regulations?
A) Receptors, control centre and effectors C) CNS, PNS and diffused nervous system
B) Sensory, motor and associative neurons D) Cerebrum, cerebellum and pons

Q.218 Blood enters the glomerulus through
A) Efferent arteriole C) Renal artery
B) Afferent arteriole D) Renal vein

Q.219 Which portion of nephron is under the control of ADH?
A) Bowman’s capsule C) Distal and collecting ducts
B) Ascending arm D) Descending arm

Q.220 Cause of Parkinson’s disease is death of brain cells that produce
A) Dopamine

B) Acetylcholine

C) ADH hormone
D) Oxytocin

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