UHS MDCAT Past Paper 2016

UHS MDCAT Past Paper MCQs 2016

Q.2 The continuous spectrum of X-ray is formed due to:
A) Characteristics of X-rays C) Soft X-ray
B) Bremsstrahlung X-ray D) Hard X-ray

Q.3 Wavelength of γ-rays is:
A) Equal to the X-rays C) Shorter to the X-rays
B) Longer to the X-rays D) Boarder to the X-rays

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Q.4 Thorium is transformed after the transmission of β-particle into:
A) Bismuth C) Polonium
B) Protactinium D) Palladium

Q.5 Emission of γ-rays from radioactive element results into:
A) Bismuth C) Polonium
B) Protactinium D) Palladium

Q.6 The relation between decay constant ‘λ’ and half-life ‘T½’ of radioactive substance is:

A) λ =

C) λ = T½

B) λ = 0.693 T½ D) λ =

Q.7 Radioisotope which is used to combat cancer of thyroid gland is:
A) Iodine-131 C) Strontium-90
B) Phosphorous-32 D) Cobalt-60

Q.8 Sodium-24 is used for:
A) Sterilization C) Skin Cancer
B) Study of circulation of blood D) Thyroid Cancer

Q.9 Energy radiation absorbed at the rate of one joule per kilogram is called:

Q.14 When fluid is incompressible, the quantity is constant is:
A) Mass C) Pressure
B) Density D) Force

Q.15 The minimum distance from the eye at which an object appears to be distant is:
A) 25 cm C) 35 cm
B) 22 cm D) 20 cm

Q.16 Using the relation for the magnifying power Lo, M = 1 + d/f, if f = 5 cm and d = 25 cm then M will be:
A) 5 C) 6
B) 7 D) 8

Q.17 Resonance occurs when the driving frequency is:
A) Greater than natural frequency C) Less than natural frequency
B) Unequal the natural frequency D) Equal to the natural frequency

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Q.18 The red shift measurement of Doppler effect of galaxies indicate that the universe is:
A) Expanding C) Stationary
B) Contracting D) Oscillating

Q.19 Frequency audible range to human hearing lies in the range:
A) 2-2000 kHz C) 20-20000 Hz
B) 15-50000 kHz D) 20-20000 kHz

Q.20 Tuning a radio is a best example of:
A) Natural resonance C) Free resonance
B) Mechanical resonance D) Electrical resonance

Q.21 The ratio of applied stress to the volumetric strain is called:
A) Bulk Modulus C) Tensile modulus
B) Shear Modulus D) Young’s Modulus

Q.22 The wire made of copper belong to which specific kind of material:
A) Ductile material C) Brittle material
B) Tough material D) Deformed material

Q.23 The relation NA = 1.38 x 10 JK in a gas law is known as:
-25 -1

A) Avogadro’s constant C) Newton’s constant
B) Charles constant D) Boltzmann’s constant

A) C)

B) D)

Q.30 If the length, width and separation between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is doubled then its capacitance becomes:
A) Double C) Four-times
B) Half D) Eight-times

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Q.31 Resistance between two opposite faces of square thin film of area 1 mm2 having thickness of 1 μm if resistivity of material is 10-6 Ω will be:
A) 1000 Ω C) 1 Ω
B) 100 Ω D) 10 Ω

Q.32 Total resistance between ‘A’ and ‘B’ in the given circuit is:
5 Ω


A) 5.6 Ω C) 0.33 Ω
B) 3.33 Ω D) 6.6 Ω

Q.33 ‘F’ is maximum force acting on a conductor. Now if we change the direction of conductor by making an angle of 45° with the magnetic field then the force becomes:
A) 2 C) √2

B) 2F D) √2 F

Q.38 Which one of the following gas is the lasing or active medium in the laser tube?
A) Hydrogen C) Neon
B) Helium D) Carbon dioxide

Q.39 The target of X-ray tube is made up of which metal?
A) Iron C) Brass
B) Nickel D) Tungsten

Q.40 The X-rays consists of:
A) High energy proton C) High energy γ-rays
B) High energy electrons D) High energy photons

Q.41 In Bernoulli’s equation the term 2 ρv2 is called:
A) K.E. per unit volume C) K.E. per unit area
B) K.E. D) K.E. per unit length

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Q.42 Potential energy per unit volume is given by:
A) mgh C) gh
B) ρ D) ρgh

Q.43 If general equation for destructive interference’s is given by the relation,
Optic path difference = (m + 2) λ
where ‘m’ is an integer, then first dark fringe appears from ’m’ will be equal to:
A) 3 C) 0
B) 2 D) 1
Q.44 For bright fringe formation, the path difference is:
1 λ
A) (n + 2) λ where n = 0, 1, 2, …………. C) (2n + 1) 2 where n = 0, 1, 2, ………….
B) nλ where n = 0, 1, 2, …………. D) (n + 1) λ2 where n = 0, 1, 2, ………….

Q.48 Which one of the following is simplest amino acid?
A) Lysine C) Alanine
B) Leucine D) Glycine

Q.49 Which one of the following polymer is called as Nylon 6,6?
A) Polyester C) Polyamide
B) Polyvinyl chloride D) Polyvinyl acetate

Q.50 Which one of the following is an exact composition of a carbohydrates?
A) Carbon and Hydrogen C) Carbon, Hydrogen and Oxygen
B) Carbon and Oxygen D) Hydrogen and Oxygen

Q.51 Which one of the following nitrogen base is NOT present in DNA?
A) Adenine C) Uracil
B) Guanine D) Cytosine

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Q.52 In the woody parts of trees, the %age of cellulose is:
A) 50% C) 30%
B) 10% D) 100%


Choose the right molecule.
A) CH3 C) H2O
B) CO D) NH3



Indicate the name of above given structure.
A) Nylon 6,6 C) PVA
B) Adipic Acid D) Polyester

A) Molecules of H2O in liquid state C) Atoms of helium in gaseous state at high temperature
B) Molecules of HCl gas D) Molecules of solid chlorine

Q.61 Electrical conductivity of graphite is greater in one direction that in other due to:
A) Isomorphism C) Anisotropy
B) Cleavage plane D) Symmetry

Q.62 Number of neutrons in 66 Zn will be:
A) 30 C) 38
B) 35 D) 36

Q.63 The maximum number of electrons in electronic configuration can be calculated by using formula:
A) 2l + 1 C) 2n2
B) 2n2 + 2 D) 2n2 + 1

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Q.64 H H


Calculate the number of σ bonds and π bonds in the molecule.
A) 1π and 5σ bonds C) 3π and 3σ bonds
B) 2π and 4σ bonds D) 6π and 6σ bonds

2 H2(g) H(g) ΔH = 218 kJmol-1
In this reaction, ΔH will be called:
A) Enthalpy of atomization C) Enthalpy of formation
B) Enthalpy of decomposition D) Enthalpy of the dissociation

Q.66 Mg + 2 O2(g) MgO(g) + -692 kJmol-1 at STP. Enthalpy of the above reaction will be called:
A) ΔH°at C) ΔH°sol
B) ΔH°s D) ΔH°f

Q.67 Freezing point will also be defined as that temperature at which its solid and liquid phases have the same:
A) Concentration C) Vapour pressure
B) Ratio between the particles D) Attraction between the phases

The diagram shows a galvanic cell. The current will flow from:
A) Hydrogen electrode to copper electrode C) Hydrogen electrode to HCl solution
B) Copper electrode to hydrogen electrode D) CuSO4 solution to hydrogen electrode

Q.70 Study the following redox reaction:
10Clˉ +16H+ + 2MnO4ˉ 5Cl2 + 2Mn+2 + 8H2O
A) Manganese is oxidized from +7 to +2 C) Chlorine is reduced from zero to -1
B) Chlorine ions are reduced from -1 to zero D) Manganese is reduced from +7 to +2

Q.71 Human blood maintains its pH between:
A) 6.50 – 7.00 C) 7.50 – 7.55
B) 7.20 – 7.25 D) 7.35 – 7.40

Q.72 Value of Ksp for PbSO4 system at 25 °C is equal to:
A) 1.6 x 10-5 mol2dm-6 C) 1.6 x 10-8 mol2dm-6
B) 1.6 x 10-6 mol2dm-6 D) 1.6 x 10-7 mol2dm-6

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Q.73 2A + B Product
If the reactant ‘B’ is in excess, the order of reaction with respect to ‘A’ in given rate law, Rate = k[A]2[B] is:
A) 2nd order reaction C) Pseudo 1st order reaction
B) 1st order reaction D) 3rd order reaction

Q.74 The rate constant ‘k’ is 0.693 min-1. The half-life for the 1st order reaction will be:
A) 1 min C) 0.693 min
B) 2 min D) 4 min

Q.75 Melting points of group II-A elements are higher than those of group I-A because:
A) Atoms of II-A elements have smaller size C) Atoms of II-A elements provide two binding electrons
B) II-A elements are more reactive D) I-A elements have smaller atomic radius

Q.76 The ionic radius of fluoride ion is:
A) 72 pm C) 136 pm
B) 95 pm D) 157 pm

Q.77 2NaOH(aq) + Cl2(g) NaCl + NaClO + H2O proceed at:
A) 500 °C C) -10 °C
B) 200 °C D) 15 °C

Q.78 Which halogen molecule ‘X2’ has lowest dissociation energy?
A) Cl2 C) I2
B) Br2 D) F2

Q.79 The anomalous electronic configuration shown by chromium and copper among 3-d series of elements is due to:
A) Colour of ions of these metals C) Stability associated with this configuration
B) Variable oxidation states of metals D) Complex formation tendency of metals

Q.80 Which element of 3d series of periodic table shows the electronic configuration of 3d6, 4s2?
A) Copper C) Zinc
B) Cobalt D) Nickel

Q.81 The %age of nitrogen in ammonium nitrate is:
A) 46% C) 33%
B) 82% D) 13%

Q.82 Which one of the following is anhydride of sulphuric acid?
A) Sulphur (II) oxide C) Iron pyrite
B) Sulphur (VI) oxide D) Sulphur (VI) oxide

Q.83 During contact process of is, the following reaction occurs: 2SO2(g) + O2 SO3(g) ΔH = -96 kJmol-1
Which step is used to inc of SO3?
A) Temperature is raised to very high degree C) Both temperature and pressure are kept very low
B) SO3 formed is removed very quickly D) An excess of air is used to drive the equilibrium to
the right side

Q.84 Synthesis of ammonia by Haber’s process is a reversible reaction. What should be done to increase the yield of amm owing reaction?

N2(g) + 3

⇌ 3(g) ΔH = -92 kJmol-1

A) Pressure should be decreased C) Pressure should be increased
B) Ammonia should remain in reaction mixture D) Concentration of nitrogen should be decreased

Q.85 Which one of the following reactions shows combustion of a saturated hydrocarbon?

A) C H

  • 3O


1 Cu

  • 2H O C) CH + O


2 4 2 2 2

4 2 2


400°C, 200 atm 3

B) CH4 + 2O2 CO2 + 2H2O D) C2H2 + 2 O2

Q.86 Skeletal formula of an organic compound is given below:

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It is a hydrocarbon. IUPAC name of the compound is:
A) 3, 3-dimethyl-3-hexene C) 3-hexene
B) 3, 4-dimethyl-3-hexene D) 2,3-dimethyl-1-hexene

Q.87 Which one of the following pairs can be cis-trans isomer to each other?
A) CHCl=CCl2 and CH2=CH2 C) CH3CH=CHCH3 and H3CCH=CHCH3
B) CHCl=CH2 and CH2=CHCl D) CH3CH3 and CH2=CH2

Q.88 Consider the reaction given below:
Mechanism followed by the reaction is:

H2C=CH2 + HBr

A) E2 C) SN1
B) E1 D) SN2

Q.89 The average bond energy of C-Br is:
A) 228 kJmol-1 C) 250 kJmol-1
B) 200 kJmol-1 D) 290 kJmol-1

Q.93 Which one of the following is an appropriate structure of product of bromination?
Br Br Br


A) Br C)




B) D) Br

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Q.94 OH



Which one of the following is an appropriate name of above compound?
A) 1,3,6-Trinitrophenol C) Tartaric acid
B) m-Nitrophenol D) Picric acid

NO 2


It is the general formula of:


A) 2, 4-Dinitrophenyl hydrazine C) Phenyl hydrazone
B) 1, 3-Dinitrophenyl hydrazone D) 2, 4-Dinitrophenyl hydrazone

Q.100 Which one of the following reaction of carboxylic acid is reversible?
A) Esterification C) Reaction with PCl5
B) Salt formation D) Reaction with SOCl2



Select the best option indicating the name of the above structure:
A) Cation C) Internal salt
B) Neutral amino acid D) Anion

Q.102 When acid is added to an amino acid, which one of the following will act as a base?
A) NH3+ C) H+
B) COOˉ D) R group


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Q.103 His theories have been by recent research.
A) Pronounced C) Dammed
B) Rearmed D) Debunked

Q.104 International rules the number of foreign entrants.
A) Hoodwink C) Fabricate
B) Stipulate D) Traverse

Q.105 The assassination of the president the country into war.
A) Articulated C) Hobbled
B) Boomed D) Precipitated

Q.106 She might be forgiven for beneath the pressure.
A) Undertaking C) Buckling
B) Extricating D) Resounding

SPOT THE ERROR: In the following sentences, some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected. Fill the Circle corresponding to that letter under the segment in the MCQ Response From.

Q.107 It showed that he was a man capable of looking beneath the surface of things, a man not
A) B) C)
dependent in paper manifestations.

Q.108 When he was a child, every time he were naughty, his foster-mother used to threaten to send him
A) B) C) D) to Timbuktu.

Q.109 I was faced with alternatively of either evicting the books or else leaving them in sole, undisturbed
A) B) C)
tenancy and taking rooms elsewhere for myself.

Q.110 I remember going to the British museum one day to read for the treatment for some slight ailment
A) B)
of which I had a touch-hay fever, I fancy it was.
C) D)

Q.111 The number of people in the world are rapidly increasing rather like a gigantic snowball which not
A) B)
only gets bigger as it rolls but goes faster as well.
C) D)

Q.112 It has been calculated that unless the growth is checked, there will only be enough room on the
A) B) C)
earth for people to stand by.

In each of the following question, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the CORRECT one and fill the Circle corresponding to that letter in the MCQ Response Form.

A) Inside a carton was a push-button unit fastened with a small wooden box.
B) Inside a carton was a push-button unit fastened by a small wooden box.
C) Inside a carton was a push-button unit fastened to a small wooden box.
D) Inside a carton was a push-button unit fastened along a small wooden box.

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A) They both looked to one another, startled by all they had just finished saying.
B) They both looked to each another, startled by all they had just finish saying.
C) They both looked to each another, startle by all they had just finish saying.
D) They both looked to each another, startled by all they had just finished saying.
A) The lovely sentiments we go through repeating!
B) The lovely sentiments we go about repeating!
C) The lovely sentiments we go in repeating!
D) The lovely sentiments we go for repeating!
A) With the bright light, still in her eyes, she moved quick out of the door.
B) With the bright light, still in her eyes, she moved quick out to the door.
C) With the bright light, still in her eyes, she moved quickly out to the door.
D) With the bright light, still in her eyes, she moved quickly out of the door.
A) In a short while quiet a large crowd had been collected.
B) In a short while quite a large crowd had collected.
C) In a short while quite large crowd had collected.
D) In a short while quite the large crowd had been collecting.

A) There was a little money saved up beside.
B) There was little money saved in besides.
C) There was little money saved up beside.
D) There was a little money saved up besides.

In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word and fill the appropriate Circle on the MCQ Response Form.
A) Loyal C) Lacking strength
B) Lazy D) High

A) Coward C) Imitating
B) Non-cooperative D) Gallant

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A) Curved C) Formal
B) Traditional D) Dashing
A) Huge C) Little
B) Trivial D) Square
A) Colophon C) Divert
B) Concoct D) Respite
A) Anomaly C) Steward
B) Prototype D) Fashion
A) Mode C) Quirk
B) Token D) Bulwark
A) Patrol C) Exhort
B) Arcane D) Falter
A) Visit C) Furry
B) Belch D) Inking

A) Somatotropin C) Testosterone
B) Luteinizing Hormone D) Spermatogonium

Q.137 Transmission of Neisseria gonorrhea is best described by which one of the following?
A) Oro-fecal Route C) Vector Borne
B) Unsafe Sex D) Droplet Infection

Q.138 Syphilis is caused by:
A) Spirochete C) Water blooms
B) Nostoc D) Cyanobacteria

Q.139 AIDS is caused by:
A) Bacteria C) Fungi
B) Virus D) Alga

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Q.140 Brain is protected and enclosed in:
A) Lumbar vertebrae C) Vertebral column
B) Coccyx D) Cranium

Q.141 Longest bone in the human skeleton is:
A) Ulna C) Tibia
B) Fibula D) Femur

Q.142 Hips and shoulder joints are examples of:
A) Hinge Joints C) Synovial Joints
B) Ball and Socket Joints D) Cartilaginous Joints

Q.143 In pelvic region of human bosy, sacrum is formed by the fusion of:
A) 4 Vertebrae C) 6 Vertebrae
B) 5 Vertebrae D) 3 Vertebrae

Q.144 Each muscle fibre is surrounded by a modified cell membrance called:
A) Sarcolemma C) Myosin Filament
B) Sarcomere D) Myofilament

Q.145 hormone is antagonistic to insulin and causes increase in blood glucose level.
A) Glucagon C) Calcitonin
B) Nor-epinephrine D) Thyroxine

Q.146 Beta cells of islets of Langerhans produce hormone.
A) Glucagon C) Pancreatic Juice
B) Insulin D) Parathormone

Q.147 The central portion of adrenal gland (Adrenal Medulla) produces hormone.
A) Aldosterone C) Androgen
B) Epinephrine D) Corticosterone

Q.148 hormones are called fight and flight hormones as they prepare an organism to face stressful situation.
A) Adrenaline, Aldosterone C) Cortisone, Oxytocin
B) Epinephrine, Nor-epinephrine D) Thyroxine, Nor-epinephrine

Q.149 B-cells release antibodies in blood plasma, tissue fluid and lymph. This kind of immune response is called:
A) Cell Mediated Response C) Active Response
B) Humoral Response D) Compound Response

Q.150 The type of immunity in which antibodies are passed from one individual to another is called:
A) Passive Immunity C) Natural Active Immunity
B) Artificial Active Immunity D) Humoral Immunity

Q.151 To combat the active infections of tetanus, rabies and snakes the
immunization is used:
A) Active C) Active Artificial
B) Humoral D) Passive

Q.152 In antibody molecule, two heavy and two light chains are bonded by:
A) Disulphide Bond C) Hydrogen Bond
B) Monosulphide Bond D) Ionic Bond

Q.153 Variable amino acid sequences in antibody molecule are found in .
A) Both light chains only C) One heavy and one light chain
B) Both heavy chains only D) Both heavy and light chains

Q.154 Each consists of a light gathering antenna complex and reaction center.
A) Chlorophyll C) Photon
B) Photosystem D) Electron

method of

Page 15 of 19
Q.155 Photosystem I has chlorophyll a molecules which absorb maximum light of:
A) 680 nm C) 700 nm
B) 780 nm D) 580 nm

Q.156 Cyclic flow or C4 photosynthesis produces:
A) ATP and CO2 C) Only CO2
B) ATP D) Only Oxygen

Q.157 Immediate product formed after CO2 fixation in Calvin Cycle is:
A) Unstable 6-carbon compound C) Unstable 4-carbon compound
B) Unstable 5-carbon compound D) Unstable 3-carbon compound m

Q.158 Functional group of chlorophyll a is:
A) —CH3 C) —COOH
B) —CHO D) —OH

Q.159 The modified plasmid or phage DNA is called:
A) Clone DNA C) cDNA
B) Recombinant DNA D) rDNA
Q.160 The rapid exchange of materials through carrier proteins across the plasma membrane is called:
A) Passive Diffusion C) Endocytosis
B) Active Transport D) Facilitated Diffusion

Q.161 The inner membrane of mitochondria form extensive infoldings called:




Q.165 Secondary structure of protein is found in:
A) Trypsin C) Insulin
B) Keratin D) Glucagon

Q.166 Waxes are formed by combination of fatty acids with:
A) Alcohol C) Serine
B) Glycerol D) Cysteine

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Q.167 Phosphodiester bond is:
A) P—O—C—P—O—C C) C—O—P—O—C
B) C—O—P D) C—C—O—P

Q.168 An enzyme required Mg++ to catalyze the substrate. The Mg++ is best identified as:
A) Prosthetic group C) Co-enzyme
B) Activator D) Inhibitor



This figure represents _ inhibitor.
A) Non-competitive C) Irreversible
B) Competitive D) Isosteric

Q.170 According to _ model the active site of enzyme is modified as the substrate interacts with enzyme.
A) Induced fit C) Emil Fischer
B) Lock and Key D) Fluid Mosaic

Q.172 All viruses can reproduce within living organisms only, so they are known as:
A) Ectoparasites C) Obligative Intracellular Parasites
B) Endoparasites D) Facultative Intracellular Parasites

Q.173 Many bacteria are motile due to presence of:
A) Flagella C) Cilia
B) Pilli D) Microtubules

Q.174 is an invagination of cell membrane which helps in cell division.
A) Fimbriae C) Mesosome
B) Nucleoid D) Endospore

Q.175 is the yeast that grows in the mucous membrane of mouth or vagina.
A) Candida albicans C) Aspergillus fumigatus
B) Saccharomyces cerevisiae D) Aspergillus flavus

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Q.176 Taenia is an endoparasite of human, pig and cattle which belongs to phylum.
A) Cnidaria C) Annelida
B) Aschelminthes D) Platyhelminthes

Q.177 Body of consists of segments called proglottis which contains mainly sex organs.
A) Planaria C) Fasciola
B) Ascaris D) Tapeworm

Q.178 is a common parasite of the intestine of human and pig which belongs to phylum nematode.
A) Taenia solanum C) Ascaris lumbriocoides
B) Schistosoma D) Fasciola hepatica

Q.179 In radial symmetry all body parts are arranged around the central axis. Radial symmetry represents mode of life.
A) Sessile C) Active
B) Streamlined D) Parasitic

Q.180 Pseudo-coelomates have a body cavity but it is not true coelom. Which one of the following is included in the group.
A) Planaria C) Earthworm
B) Tapeworm D) Ascaris

Q.181 Digestion of _ starts in oral cavity due to the action of enzyme present in saliva.

Q.187 Chordae tendinea are fibrous cords attached with:
A) Cardiac end of stomach valve C) Pyloric sphincter of stomach
B) Tricuspid valve of heart D) Eyelid

Q.188 Bicuspid valve controls the flow of blood from:
A) Right atrium to right ventricle C) Left ventricle to aorta
B) Right ventricle to pulmonary artery D) Left atrium to left ventricle

Q.189 Carboxyhaemoglobin (10-20%) is formed when CO2 combines with:
A) Amino group of haemoglobin C) Haem portion of haemoglobin
B) Iron part of haemoglobin D) Plasma proteins

Q.190 Breathing consists of:
A) Four phases C) One phase
B) Three phases D) Two phases

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Q.191 Bowman’s capsule continues as extensively convoluted portion known as:
A) Peritubular capillaries C) Efferent arterioles
B) Proximal convuluted tubules D) Afferent arterioles

Q.192 Restriction endonucleases cleave the of duplex DNA.
A) Nitrogenous base C) Phosphodiester bond
B) Base sugar D) Hydrogen bond

Q.193 The enzyme which is responsible for the formation of bond between two double stranded DNA fragments is:
A) Endonuclease C) Ligase
B) Urease D) Helicase

Q.194 The organisms of third trophic level are:
A) Primary consumer C) Tertiary consumer
B) Primary producer D) Secondary consumer

Q.195 The ultimate source of energy in an ecosystem is:
A) Photosynthesis C) Plants
B) Sun D) Water

Q.196 All the food chains and food webs begin with:
A) Detritus C) Green plants
B) Herbivores D) Omnivores

Q.202 A character determined by three alleles is:
A) Human skin colour C) Human eye colour
B) Human blood group D) Human Rh factor

Q.203 The total number of genes in a population is called:
A) Gene pool C) Genome
B) Allele pool D) Genomic library

Q.204 is the branch of Biology used for the identification and interpretation of fossils.
A) Evolution C) Zoogeography
B) Paleontology D) Biodiversity
Q.205 Out of the given options, choose the one which shows the structures found only in plants
A) Vacuole, Chloroplast, Ribosomes C) Chloroplast, Cell Wall, Vacuole
B) Chloroplast, Microtubules, Peroxisomes D) Chloroplast, Cell Wall, Mitochondria

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Q.206 Presence of large central vacuole is the characteristic of:
A) Prokaryotes C) Fungi
B) Protists D) Plants
Q.207 The basic structure of plasma membrane is provided by:
A) Proteins C) Cytoskeleton
B) Cholesterols D) Phospholipids
Q.208 The organelle involved in detoxification of drugs and poisons in the liver cells is:
A) Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum C) Golgi Apparatus
B) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum D) Lysosomes
Q.209 Down’s syndrome is characterized by at chromosome 21.
A) Trisomy C) Polysomy
B) Monosomy D) Disomy
Q.210 Which of the following is an example of autosomal non-disjunction?
A) Turner’s Syndrome C) Metastasis
B) Jacob’s Syndrome D) Down’s syndrome
Q.211 Infertility, short height, webbed neck and low hairline at lack are symptoms of
A) Turner’s C) Edward’s
B) Down’s D) Patau’s
Q.212 The concentration of sodium ions in body fluids is controlled by the hormone:
A) Renin C) Angiotensin
B) Aldosterone D) CPK
Q.213 A hormone released from posterior pituitary lobe acts to be actively transport water from filtrate is collecting tubules back to kidney is shown as:
A) Renin C) Angiotensin
B) Antidiuretic hormone D) Growth Factor
Q.214 The removal metabolic waste from the blood is called:
A) Thermoregulation C) Kidney Failure
B) Osmoregulation D) Excretion
Q.215 Highly toxic nitrogenous excretory product is:
A) CO2 C) Urea
B) Uric Acid D) Ammonia
Q.216 Humans have homeostatic thermostat present in a specified portion of the brain that is:
A) Lateral ventricle C) Spinal Cord
B) Thalamus D) Hypothalamus
Q.217 The disease in which death of small number of cells in the basal ganglia leads to inability to select and initiate patterns of movement is known as:
A) Fever C) Epilepsy
B) Alzheimer’s Disease D) Parkinson’s Disease
Q.218 A neurological disorder characterized by the decline in brain function is . Its symptoms are similar to those diseases that cause dementia.
A) Parkinson’s Disease C) Alzheimer’s Disease
B) Epilepsy D) Diabetes
Q.219 A discharge by brain which causes chaotic activity in motor and sensory areas is:

A) Meningitis
B) Alzheimer’s Disease

C) Epilepsy
D) Parkinson’s Disease

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