UHS MDCAT Past Paper 2014

UHS MDCAT Past Paper MCQs 2014

Q.3 Two forces, 5 N and 10 N are acting at ‘O’ and ‘P’ respectively on a uniform meter rod suspended at the position of centre of gravity 50 cm mark as shown in the figure.
What is the position of ‘P’ on meter rod?
A) 80 cm C) 70 cm
B) 75 cm D) 65 cmUHS MDCAT Past Paper 2012Q.3 Two forces, 5 N and 10 N are acting at ‘O’ and ‘P’ respectively on a uniform meter rod suspended at the position of centre of gravity 50 cm mark as shown in the figure.
What is the position of ‘P’ on meter rod?
A) 80 cm C) 70 cm
B) 75 cm D) 65 cm

Q.4 An oil film floating on water surface exhibits colour pattern due to the phenomenon of:
A) Diffraction C) Interference
B) Polarization D) Surface tension

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Q.5 Which of the following is the best graphical representation between drag force ‘F’ on a spherical object of radius ‘r’ and its speed ‘v’ through a fluid of viscosity ‘η’?

A) C)

B) D)

Q.6 What is the speed of an incompressible non-viscous liquid flowing out from ‘B’ contained in a container as shown in the figure? Where AB = 5 m and g = 10 m/s2.

A) λ = 0.60 nm C) λ = 0.20 nm
B) λ = 0.30 nm D) λ = 0.90 nm

Q.11 A 100 kg man is standing in an elevator, which accidently falls freely. What will be the weight of the person in the freely falling elevator (take g=10 m/s2)
A) 1000 N C) 500 N
B) 10 N D) Zero

Q.12 Frequency of simple pendulum of length 9.8 m will be
A) 2 π Hertz C) 1/2π Hertz
B) π/2 Hertz D) π/4 Hertz

Q.13 A body performs simple harmonic motion with a period of 0.063 s. The maximum speed of 3.0 ms-1. What are the values of the amplitude ‘xo (m)’ and angular frequency ‘ω (rads-1)’?
A) xo = 0.03, ω = 100 C) xo = 5.3, ω = 16
B) xo = 0.19, ω = 16 D) xo = 3.3, ω = 100

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Q.14 Food being cooked in microwave oven is an example of
A) Beats C) Resonance
B) Overtones D) Stationary waves

Q.15 Potential energy of a mass spring system with respect to displacement during simple harmonic motion (SHM) is shown in the figure.

Which of the following represents the total energy of mass spring system during SHM?

``X   Y   Z``

A) Brittle Ductile Polymer
B) Brittle Polymer Ductile
C) Polymer Brittle Ductile
D) Ductile Brittle Polymer

Q.17 A gas containing ‘N’ number of molecules of a gas having mass of each molecule ‘m’ is in a cubic container having length of each side ‘a’. What is the density of gas contained in cube?
A) N/a2 C) Nm/a3
B) m/a3 D) Na3/m

Q.18 In ‘General Gas Equation PV=nRT’, ‘n’ represents the number of moles of gas. Which of the following represents the relation of ‘n’?
A) n = NNA C) n = NA/N
B) n = N/NA D) n = N + NA

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Q.19 Which feature of the following graph represents Young’s Modulus?
A) Area under graph C) Reciprocal of the gradient
B) Gradient of the graph D) Product of gradient and area of the curve.

Q.20 At triple point of water, the pressure of gas is 2680 Pa, by changing ‘T’ the pressure increases to 4870 Pa. Then ‘T’ is:
A) 496.38 K C) Zero
B) 438.96 K D) 496.38 oF

Q.21 The relation between Celsius and Fahrenheit scales is:

C

100

= F − 32
180

At what temperature both scales give the same reading?
A) -100o C) -180o
B) -40o D) -273o

Q.22 A heat engine working according to second law of thermodynamics has 50% efficiency. What will be the temperature of its low temperature reservoir if high temperature reservoir is 327 oC?

A B Output x = AB + AB
0 0
0 1
1 0
1 1

A) C)

B) D)

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Q.25 What is the reading of Ammeter as shown in the circuit diagram?

A) 1 A C) 5 A
B) 15 A D)10 A

Q.26 Three 6 Ω are connected as shown in the diagram.

What is the resistance between points ‘A’ and ‘B’?
A) 6 Ω C) 4 Ω
B) 16 Ω D) 2 Ω

Q.27 The difference between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is 2.0 mm and area of each plate is 2.0 m2. The plates are in a vacuum. A potential difference of 1.0 x 104 V is applied across the plates. Find the capacitance.
A) 4 x 10-3 F C) 8.85 x 10-9 F
B) 3.54 x 10-9 F D) 9.0 x 10-9 F

Q.28 A solenoid 15 cm long has 300 turns of wire. A current of 5 A flows through it. What is the magnitude of magnetic field inside the solenoid?
A) 75 x 107 T C) 4π x 10-3 T
B) 60 x 10+3 T D) 750π x 10+3 T

Q.29 Due to current in a straight conductor the difference between magnetic field lines
A) Increases away from conductor C) Increases towards conductor
B) Decreases away from conductor D) Decreases and then increases towards conductor

Q.30 Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) is used to identify the image of
A) Tumors and inflamed tissues C) Skin cells
B) Blood cells D) Bone structures

Q.31 Stimulated emission of two photons ‘A’ and ‘B’ during LASER action is shown in figure:

E2

Photon A

Photon B

E1

Excited Atom Stimulated Emission

What is the relation of wavelengths of two photons?
A) λA = λB C) λA < λB
B) λA > λB D) λA = 2λB

Q.32 Bones absorb greater amount of incident X-rays than flesh. This is because of the fact that
A) Bones lie between the flesh C) Bones contain material of low densities
B) Bones are light in color D) Bones contain material

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Q.33 Which of the following techniques is the practical application of X-rays?
A) Magnetic Resonance Imaging C) Computerized Axial Topography
B) Ultrasonography D) Positron Emission Tomography

Q.34 Which one of the following spectra is most typical of the output of an X-ray tube?

A) C)

B) D)

Q.35 Which one of the following has the largest energy content?

``Atomic Number   Mass Number``

A) Remains the same Increases by one
B) Increases by one Decreases by two
C) Increases by one Remains the same
D) Decreases by two Decreases by four

Q.40 A Uranium isotope 232U undergoes one α–decay and one
A) 90 C) 89
B) 92 D) 88

0β – decay. What is the final product?

Q.41 A naturally occurring radioactive element decays two alpha particles. Which one of the following represents status of daughter element with respect to mass number ‘A’ and charge number ‘Z’?
A) ‘Z’ decreases by 4 and ‘A’ decreases by 2 C) ‘Z’ decreases by 4 and ‘A’ decreases by 8
B) ‘Z’ decreases by 2 and ‘A’ decreases by 4 D) ‘Z’ decreases by 8 and ‘A’ decreases by 4

Q.42 A radioactive isotope ‘W’ decays to ‘X’ which decays to ‘Y’ and ‘Y’ decays to ‘Z’ as represented by the figure below:
W X Y Z
α α
What is the change in the atomic number from ‘W’ to ‘Z’?
A) Increases by 3 C) Increases by 5
B) Decreases by 3 D) Decreases by 5

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Q.43 Three paths of radioactive radiations are observed as shown in the figure in the presence of electric field. Which type of radiation is shown in path 1?

3

A) Alpha C) Gamma
B) Beta D) Cathode rays

Q.44 What is the absorbed dose ‘D’ of a sample of 2 kg which is given an amount of 100 J of radioactive energy?
A) 200 Gy C) 50 Gy
B) 102 Gy D) 98 Gy

CHEMISTRY

Species Proton Neutron Electron
As 33 42 30
Ga 31 39 28
Ca 20 20 20
A) As-3, Ga+3, Ca C) As+3, Ga+3, Ca+2
B) As+1, Ga+2, Ca D) As+1, Ga, Ca+2

Q.50 If the e/m value of electron is 1.7588 x 1011 coulombs Kg-1, then what would be the mass of electron in grams (charge on electron is 1.6022 x 10-19 coulombs)?
A) 9.1095 x 10-31 g C) 9.1095 x 10-28 g
B) 91.095 x 10-31 g D) 0.919095 x 10-33 g

Q.51 The suitable representation of dot structure of chlorine molecule is:
A) C)
B) D)

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Q.52 When the two partially filled atomic orbitals overlap in such a way that the probability of finding electron is maximum around the line joining the two nuclei, the result is the formation of
A) Sigma Bond C) Hydrogen Bond
B) Pi-Bond D) Metallic Bond

Q.53 2H2 + O2 2H2O ∆H = +285.5 kJ mol-1 What will be the enthalpy change in the above reaction?
A) 205.5 kJ/mol C) -205.5 kJ/mol
B) Zero kJ/mol D) 1 kJ/mol

Q.54 Combustion of graphite to form CO2 can be done by two ways. Reactions are given as follows: C + O2 CO2 ∆H = -393.7 kJ mol-1
C + ½O2 CO ∆H = ?
CO + ½O2 CO ∆H = -283 kJ mol-1
What will be enthalpy of formation of CO?
A) -676 kJ mol-1 C) 110 kJ mol-1
B) -110 kJ mol-1 D) 676 kJ mol-1

Q.55 The value of equilibrium constant (Kc) for the reaction 2HF(s) ⇌ H2(g) + F2(g) is 10-13 at 2000 °C. Calculate the value of Kp for this reaction:
A) 2 x 10-13 C) 186 x 10-13
B) 10-13 D) 3.48 x 10-9

Q.56 The vapor pressure lines for pure as well as solutions of different concentrations are shown. Which line represents pure water?

Q.59 What will be the pH of a solution of NaOH with a concentration of 10-3 M?
A) 3 C) 11
B) 14 D) 7

Q.60 If the reactant or product of a chemical reaction can absorb ultraviolet, visible or infrared radiation, then the rate of a chemical reaction can best be measured by which one of the following methods?
A) Chemical method C) Graphical method
B) Spectrometry D) Differential method

Q.61 For the reaction 2NO + O2 ⇌ 2NO2, the rate equation for the forward reaction is
A) Rate = k [NO] [O2] C) Rate = k [NO2]2
B) Rate = k [NO]2[O2] D) Rate = k [NO2]

A) β, cancer C) α, kidney stone
B) α, cancer D) β, kidney stone

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Q.63 One mole of glucose was dissolved in 1 kg of water, ethanol, ether and benzene separately and the molal boiling point constant of each individual solution was found to be 0.52, 1.75, 2.16 and
2.70 in the units of / °C kg mol-1 respectively. Which of the following figures shows benzene as solvent in solution?
I II

III IV
A) I C) III
B) II D) IV

Q.64 The trends, in melting points of the elements of 3rd period, are depicted in figure below.

Q.67 Electronic configuration of Manganese (Mn) is

A) Mn (Ar) C) Mn (Ar)

B) Mn (Ar) D) Mn (Ar)

Q.68 The percentage of carbon in different types of iron products is in the order of
A) Cast Iron > Wrought Iron > Steel C) Cast Iron > Steel > Wrought Iron
B) Wrought Iron > Steel > Cast Iron D) Cast Iron > Steel > Wrought Iron

Q.69 Which one of the following is correct equation of 1st ionization of sulphuric acid?
A) H2SO4(aq) + H2O(l) 2H+ + SO4 C) H2SO4(aq) + H2O(l)
B) H2SO4(aq) + H2O(l) H+(aq) + HSO4- D) H2SO4(aq) + H2O(l)

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Q.70 Which one of the following is the correct chemical reaction for Ammonia formation by Haber process?
A) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) C) 2N(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
B) 2N(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ NH3(g) D) N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)

Q.71 The pH of acid rain is
A) 7 C) Below 5
B) Between 5 and 7 D) Between 7 and 14

Q.72 Which one of the following products is obtained when sulphur trioxide is absorbed in concentrated sulphuric acid?
A) Oleum C) Hydrogen sulphide
B) Aqua Regia D) Sulphate ion

Q.73 Which one of the following pair of compounds is cis and trans isomers of each other?

CH3

CH2

CH3

H CH3
C C Br

Cl Cl Br

C C
A) H H

CH2 H
CH3 C)

C C
H H

Br Cl

C C
H H

Br Br

CH3
C C

CH3 H H C C

C CH2

C
CH2

C CH3

C
CH2

B) H H

CH3 H D)

CH3

CH3

CH3

Q.74 Which one of the following compound is a ketone?
A) CH3 ― O ― CH2 ― CH3 C) CH3COCOOH
B) CH3 ― CO ― CH2 ― CH3 D) CH3 ― CH2CHO

Q.75 Addition of unsymmetrical reagent to an unsymmetrical alkene is governed by:
A) Cannizzaro’s Reaction C) Aldol Condensation
B) Kirchhoff Rule D) Markownikov’s Rule

Q.76 Ethylene glycols are used as
A) Anesthetic C) Freezing agent
B) Knocking agent D) Anti-freezing agent

Q.77 The halothane used in hospitals as an anesthetic is chemically
A) 1-Bromo-1-chloro-2, 2, 2-trifluroethane C) 1, 1, 1-Triflouro-2-bromo-2-chloroethane
B) 2-Bromo-2-chloro-1, 1, 1-trifluroethane D) 2-Chloro-2-bromo-1, 1, 1-triflouromoethane

Q.78 If halogenoalkanes are mixed with an excess of ethanoic ammonia and heated under pressure, amine are formed. Which amine is formed in the following reaction?
CH2CH3Br + NH3 Amine
A) CH3―CH2―NH―CH2―CH3 C) CH3―CH2―CH2―NH2
B) CH3―CH2―NH2 D) H2N―CH2―CH2―NH2

Q.79 Primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols can be identified and distinguished by
A) Lucas test C) Baeyer’s test
B) Iodoform test D) Silver mirror test

Q.80 Which one of the following alcohol is indicated by formation of yellow crystals in Iodoform test?
A) Methanol C) Butanol
B) Ethanol D) Propanol

Q.81 Ethyl butyrate and butyl butanoate are esters with the flavor of
A) Pear C) Pineapple
B) Banana D) Apple

Q.82 The formula of 2, 4, 6-tribromo phenol is

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Br

Br Br

A) Br C) HO Br
OH
Br Br OH
Br Br

B) Br D) Br

Q.83 Which one of the following groups is indicated when HCl is formed by reaction of ethanol with phosphorous pentachloride?
A) Amino group C) Halide group
B) Hydroxyl group D) Hydride group

Q.84 A student mixed ethyl alcohol with small amount of sodium dichromate and added it to the hot solution of dilute sulphuric acid. A vigorous reaction took place. He distilled the product formed immediately. What was the product?
A) Acetone C) Dimethyl ether
B) Acetic acid D) Acetaldehyde

Q.85 The structural formula of the product of reaction of acetone with 2, 4-dinitrophenyl hydrazine is:

CH3
C N N
H
A) H

CH3
C N N
CH
B) H

NO2

NO2

CH3
C N N
H H
C)

CH3
C N N
CH3 H
D)

NO2

NO2

NO2

NO2

Q.86 For the reaction:

? + HCN Base

CH3 OH C

C2H5 CN
A) C2H5COCH3 C) CH3COCH3
B) C2H5CH(CH3)OH D) C2H5CH2CHO

Q.87 Acetamide is formed by dehydration of
A) Oxalic acid C) Butanoic acid
B) Ethanoic acid D) Propanoic acid

Q.88 Organic compounds ‘X’ and ‘Y’ both can react with Na-Metal to evolve hydrogen gas. If ‘X’ and ‘Y’ react with each other form an organic compound ‘Z’ which gives fruity smell. What type of compound ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ are?

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Q.89 The amino acids which are not prepared in human body are called
A) Essential amino acids C) Alpha amino acids
B) Non-essential amino acids D) Beta amino acids

Q.90 Indicate the cyclic amino acid from the following:
A) Cysteine C) Haloamine
B) Serine D) Proline

Q.91 Which one of the following is Glutamic Acid?
H H

H2N
A)

H2N
B)

C COOH CH2CH2CO2H
H

C COOH CH2COOH

H2N
C)

H2N
D)

C COOH H
H

C COOH CH3

Q.92 At low pH or in acidic condition amino acid exists as
A) Anion C) Zwitter ion
B) Cation D) Neutral specie

Q.93 The structure shown below represents:

A) Propene-1, 2, 3-triol C) Propene-1, 2, 3-diol
B) Propane-1, 2, 3-triol D) Propane-1, 2, 3-diol

Q.98 Which one of the following base is NOT present in RNA?
A) Cytosine C) Thymine

Q.99 Collagen proteins are present in _ throughout the body
A) Muscle C) Tendons
B) Red blood cells D) Blood plasma

Q.100 is an eye irritant.
A) Peroxyacetyl nitrate C) Peroxymethoxy aniline
B) Peroxyacetyl nitrite D) Peroxyacetyl aniline

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Q.101 Polystyrene is an addition polymer. Which one of the following structures represents the monomer of polystyrene?
A) CH2 CH2 C) CH2 CH Cl
B) CH2 CH CH3 D) CH2 CH C6H5

Q.102 Which one of the following pollutants can cause death of a person by binding with haemoglobin of red blood cells?
A) Chlorofluorocarbons C) Carbon monoxide
B) Oxides of Sulphur D) Oxides of nitrogen

ENGLISH
Q.103 It is our national duty to our vote in the general election.
A) Throw C) Drop
B) Cast D) Refuse

Q.104 She is intelligent enough to things to serve her own purpose.
A) Pick C) Give
B) Maneuver D) Take

Q.105 She about the excitement on hearing the news of her sister’s wedding.

Q.110 The child was fully dressed and sitting in her father’s lap near the kitchen table.
A) B) C) D)

Q.111 The three Abdal Rahman, like his illustrious predecessor, was a young man of twenty-three
A) B) C)
when he took office.
D)

Q.112 Enlarged and beautified by later Caliphs, Al-Zahra become the nucleus of a royal suburb
A) B)
whose remain partly evacuated in and after 1910, can still be seen.
C) D)

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In each of the following question, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the CORRECT one and fill the Circle corresponding to that letter in the MCQ Response Form.

Q.113
A) I thought it over very carefully before broaching the subject to Asma.
B) I thought it on very carefully before broaching the subject to Asma.
C) I thought it by very carefully before broaching the subject to Asma.
D) I thought it upon very carefully before broaching the subject to Asma.

Q.114
A) He left into a blaze of anger. C) He left in a blaze of anger.
B) He left with a blaze of anger. D) He left back in a blaze of anger.

Q.115
A) Shahid battered Anwar down submission. C) Shahid down battered Anwar into submission.
B) Shahid battered Anwar into submission. D) Shahid was battered Anwar down submission.

Q.116
A) Pride was an intrinsic component of his personal makeup.
B) Pride was a intrinsic component of his personal makeup.
C) Pride an intrinsic component of his personal makeup.
D) Pride were an intrinsic component of his personal makeup.

Q.121
A) But the men ate their supper with good appetites. C) But the men ate their supper for good appetites.
B) But the men ate their supper in good appetites. D) But the men ate their supper into good appetites.

Q.122
A) The boy was afraid of going to jail. C) The boy was afraid on going to jail.
B) The boy was afraid off going to jail. D) The boy was afraid by going to jail.

In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word and fill the appropriate Circle on the MCQ Response Form.

Q.123 DISDAIN
A) Vice C) Contempt
B) Dislike D) Ignorance

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Q.124 SAGACITY
A) Suspicious C) Wisdom
B) Cruelty D) Foolishness

Q.125 FLAUNT
A) Snipe C) Show off
B) Dance D) Preserve

Q.126 URBANE
B) Rough D) Dishonest

Q.127 DIASPORA
A) Gathering C) Alliance
B) Dispersion D) Animosity

Q.128 IMPETUOUS
A) Honest C) Lazy
B) Impulsive D) Liar

Q.129 VOCIFEROUS
A) Hidden C) Strong
B) Loud D) Weak

Q.135 Treatment by using attenuated culture of bacteria is called
A) Chemotherapy C) Antisepsis
B) Sterilization D) Vaccination

Q.136 The major cause of hepatitis B is
A) Blood transfusion C) Absence of fibrinogen
B) Blood clotting D) Contaminated soil

Q.137 During animal cell division, the spindle fibres are formed from
A) Mitochondria C) Ribosomes
B) Centrioles D) Lysosomes

Q.138 Which component of the cell is concerned with cell secretions?
A) Plasma membrane C) Cytoskeleton
B) Golgi complex D) Mitochondria

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Q.139 During which period of interphase (cell cycle) DNA is synthesized?
A) G1 C) S
B) G2 D) G0

Q.140 Peptidoglycan or murein is a special or distinctive feature of cell wall in
A) Algae C) Bacteria
B) Fungi D) Plants

Q.141 In mitochondria, small knob-like structures called F1 particles are found in:
A) Outer membrane C) Inner membrane
B) Outer compartment D) Inner compartment

Q.142 The most critical phase of mitosis which ensures equal distribution of chromatids in the daughter cells is
A) Prophase C) Anaphase
B) Metaphase D) Telophase

Q.143 Non-disjunction of 21st pair of chromosomes in one of the gamete leads to 47 chromosomes in one individual. This condition is called
A) Turner’s syndrome C) Down’s syndrome
B) Klinefelter’s syndrome D) Jacob’s syndrome

Q.144 The intake of liquid materials across the cell membrane is
A) Phagocytosis C) Pinocytosis
B) Endocytosis D) Exocytosis

A) Phospholipids C) Terpenoids
B) Waxes D) Acyl glycerols

Q.151 In translation the terminating codon is
A) GUA C) UUG
B) UAA D) AGU

Q.152 All co-enzymes are derived from
A) Proteins C) Metal ions
B) Carbohydrates D) Vitamins

Q.153 The competitive inhibitors have structural similarity with
A) Active site C) Substrate
B) Binding site D) Co-enzyme

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Q.154 Which one of the following is the optimum pH of pancreatic lipase enzyme?
A) 7.60 C) 9.00
B) 8.00 D) 9.70

Q.155 A co-factor tightly bound to the enzyme on the permanent basis is called
A) Activator C) Prosthetic group
B) Co-enzyme D) Apo-enzyme

Q.156 Which one of the following cells are mainly infected by HIV?
A) T-killer lymphocytes C) B-plasma cells
B) T-helper lymphocytes D) B-memory cells

Q.157 Which one of the following antibiotic causes permanent discoloration of teeth in young children if it is misused?
A) Penicillin C) Sulfonamide
B) Streptomycin D) Tetracycline

Q.158 What are the sequence of steps in which a bacteriophage attacks bacteria and injects its DNA?
A) Landing ⭢ Tall contraction ⭢ Penetration ⭢ DNA Injection
B) Penetration ⭢ Landing ⭢ Tall contraction ⭢ DNA Injection
C) Tall contraction ⭢ Landing ⭢ DNA Injection ⭢ Penetration
D) Landing ⭢ Penetration ⭢ Tall contraction ⭢ DNA Injection
Q.159 Athlete’s Foot is a disease caused by

Q.165 In human, Escherichia coli is involved in the formation of
A) Calcium C) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin D D) Vitamin K

Q.166 The function of Goblet cells is to secrete
A) Gastrin C) Pepsinogen
B) Hydrochloric acid D) Mucus

Q.167 Gastric glands are composed of _ types of cells
A) Two C) Four
B) Three D) Five

Q.168 HCl in gastric juice is secreted by which one of the following cells?
A) Chief cells C) Mucous cells
B) Oxyntic cells D) Kupffer cells

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Q.169 Histamine is produced by which one of the following cells?
A) Basophils C) Monocyte
B) Platelets D) Eosinophils

Q.170 Which one of the following is the most numerous / commonest of white blood cells?
A) Eosinophils C) Neutrophils
B) Monocytes D) Lymphocytes

Q.171 The oxygenated blood from lungs to heart is transported by the
A) Pulmonary artery C) Pulmonary vein
B) Coronary artery D) Hepatic artery

Q.172 Which one of the following proteins takes part in blood clotting?
A) Prothrombin C) Immunoglobulin
B) Fibrinogen D) Globulin

Q.173 Which one of the following is responsible for the production of concentrated urine?
A) Juxtamedullary nephrons C) Proximal tubule
B) Cortical nephrons D) Distal tubule

Q.174 Reabsorption of useful constituents normally takes place in which one of the following?
A) Proximal tubule C) Bowman’s capsule
B) Distal tubule D) Glomerulus

A) Constriction of bronchi C) Promotes digestion or peristalsis
B) Decrease in heart rate D) Dilates the pupil

Q.181 High levels of aluminium may contribute to the onset of which one of the following?
A) Parkinson’s disease C) Alzheimer’s disease
B) Epilepsy D) Gonorrhea

Q.182 Testosterone is produced by which one of the following?
A) Sertoli cells C) Interstitial cells
B) Germinal epithelium D) Spermatogonia

Q.183 The oocyte released during ovulation is in
A) Anaphase I C) Metaphase I
B) Prophase I D) Metaphase II

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Q.184 Yellowish glandular structure formed after the release of egg from follicle is called
A) Corpus callosum C) Corpus luteum
B) Graafian follicle D) Follicle atresia

Q.185 On puberty, the development of primary follicles is stimulated by
A) ICSH C) LH
B) FSH D) Estrogen

Q.186 Causative agent of a sexually transmitted disease that affects mucous membrane of the urinogenital tract is
A) Staphylococcus aureus C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B) Treponema pallidum D) Escherichia coli

Q.187 In a human vertebral column, the number of vertebrae is 7.
A) Cervical C) Lumber
B) Thoracic D) Sacrum

Q.188 Which one of the following structures holds the bones together?
A) Joints C) Fibrous capsules
B) Cartilages D) Ligaments

Q.189 Which one of the following cartilages is the most abundant in the human body?
A) Elastic cartilage C) Fibrous Cartilage
B) Chondrous cartilage D) Hyaline Cartilage

Q.195 How many iodine atoms are present in thyroxine?
A) 3 C) 2
B) 4 D) 5

Q.196 T-lymphocytes recognize antigen and attack microorganisms or transplanted organ and tissues. This effect is called
A) Cell-mediated response C) Active immunity
B) Humeral immune response D) Passive immunity

Q.197 Which part of antibody recognizes the antigen during immune response?
A) Heavy part C) Constant part
B) Light part D) Variable part

Q.198 What type of immunity is achieved by injecting antibodies, antiserum, anti-venom serum?
A) Active immunity C) Artificially induced immunity
B) Passive immunity D) Naturally induced immunity

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Q.199 Which one of the following glands is involved in the production of lymphocytes?
A) Pineal C) Thymus

Q.200 Antibodies are proteins and made up of how many polypeptide chains?
A) One C) Three
B) Two D) Four

Q.201 Oxidative phase of glycolysis starts with dehydrogenation of
A) Glycolysis C) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate

Q.202 In one turn, the Krebs’s cycle produces one molecule of ATP, one molecule of FADH2 and
A) 1 C) 3
B) 2 D) 4

Q.203 Which one of the following is the stage of cellular respiration for which oxygen is not essential?
A) Glycolysis C) Krebs’s cycle
B) Pyruvate oxidation D) Electron Transport Chain

Q.204 Pyruvate, the end product of glycolysis moves from cytosol to mitochondrial matrix where it is oxidized into producing CO2 as a by-product.
A) Acetic acid (active) C) NAD

Q.205 Pyruvate Acetyl CoA

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Q.206 pBr 322 have antibiotic resistance gene for
A) Ampicillin and aspirin C) Ampicillin and Tetracycline
B) Streptomycin and metronidazole D) Penicillin and metronidazole

Q.207 Cystic Fibrosis affects which one of the following cells of the body?
A) Epithelial cells C) Plasma cells
B) Endothelial cells D) Blood cells

Q.208 The enzymes which act as molecular scissors in recombinant DNA technology is
A) Exonucleoses B) Endonucleoses
C) Polymerases D) Reverse transcriptases

Q.209 Which of the following is the correct sequence of PCR?
A) Heating ⭢ Cooling ⭢ Add Primer ⭢ Copying of strand
B) Heating ⭢ Add Primer ⭢ Cooling ⭢ Copying of strand
C) Add Primer ⭢ Heating ⭢ Cooling ⭢ Copying of strand
D) Cooling ⭢ Add Primer ⭢ Heating ⭢ Copying of strand
Q.210 When two different pieces of DNA are joined together, the result is which one of the following?
A) Complementary DNA B) Mutated DNA
C) Recombinant DNA D) Cloned DNA

Q.211 Individual successions are known as
A) Primary successions C) Seres
B) Secondary successions D) Xeroses

Q.212 Which one of the following is the ultimate distributional unit within which a species is restrained by the limitations of its physical structure and physiology?
A) Niche B) Biome
C) Ecosystem D) Habitat

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Q.213 All herbivores belong to which trophic level in the food chain?
A) T1 C) T3
B) T2 D) T4

Q.214 How many food chains are present in following food web?

Fox

Grass Snake Dog
Frog

Beetle Spider

Caterpillar Slug Wood Boring Bettle Wood Louse

Q.219 Position of a gene within a DNA molecule is
A) Locus C) Amplicon
B) Origin D) Filial

Q.220 Sickle cell anemia is a type of
A) Insertion C) Deletion
B) Transposition D) Base Substitution

Protected

Salam