# UHS MDCAT Past Paper 2009

MDCAT Past Paper

Q.2 If inputs A = 1, B = 0 and output X = 1, then it corresponds to the operation of a:
A) AND Gate C) XNOR Gate
B) NAND Gate D) NOR Gate

Q.3 The value of Stefan’s Boltzmann Constant is:
A) 4.28 x 10-7 Wm-2K-4 C) 3.62 x 10-4 Wm-2K-4
B) 4.28 x 10-4 Wm-2K-4 D) 5.67 x 10-5 Wm-2K-4

Q.4 Einstein’s photoelectric equation is given by:
A) hf = ϕ = ½ mv2 C) E = hc2
B) E = mc2 D) hf = ½ mv2

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Q.5 In Compton Effect, the value of h
moc

is given by:

A) 1.43 x 10-11 m C) 2.43 x 10-12 m
B) 2.56 x 10-12 m D) 3.46 x 10-6 m

Q.6 If a particle of mass 5.0 mg moves with the speed of 8.0 m/sec, then the de-Broglie’s wavelength will be:
A) 1.68 x 10-27 m C) 1.65 x 10-29 m
B) 1.70 x 10-25 m D) 1.66 x 10-29 m

Q.7 LASER is a device which can produce:
A) Intense beam of light C) Coherent beam of light
B) Intense, Coherent, Monochromatic beam of light D) Monochromatic beam of light

Q.8 A crack allows greater amount of X-rays to pass, which appears on photographic film as:
A) Blue Area C) Bright Area
B) Dark Area D) Red Area

Q.9 The emission of γ-radiations from the nucleus is generally represented by the equation:

A) AX →

• + γ-radiations C) AX• →

A
Z − 1

B) AX• → A

• β-particles D) AX• → A

Q.10 For intermediate energy of radiations, the dormant process is:

Q.15 Two waves of slightly different frequencies and travelling in the same direction lead to:
A) Stationary Waves C) Beats
B) Interference D) Both B and C

Q.16 What is it that we use to calculate the speeds of distant stars and galaxies?
A) Doppler Effect C) Beats
B) Interference D) All of the above

Q.17 In Young’s Double Slit Experiment, if the distance between slits and screen is doubled, then fringe spacing becomes:
A) Zero C) Doubles of the original value
B) One D) Half of the original value

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Q.18 In Michelson’s interferometer 792 bright fringes pass across the field of view when its movable
λ
mirror is displaced through 0.233 mm using the equation l = m 2 the wavelength of light used
is:
A) 588 nm C) 348 nm
B) 620 nm D) 400 nm

Q.19 In Michelson’s Experiment, the formula to calculate the speed of light is:
16 f
A) c = 2 fd C) c = d
2π f
B) c = d D) c = 16 fd

Q.20 The information received at the other end of a fibre can be inaccurate due to of the light signal.
A) Longer wavelengths C) Intensity
B) Frequency D) Dispersion or Spreading

Q.21 The pressure on the other sides and everywhere inside the vessel will be according to the:
A) Pascal’s Law C) Boyle’s Law
B) Hook’s Law D) Charles’s Law

Q.22 The value of universal; Gas Constant ‘R’ is;

Q.27 The scalar product of ^i and k^ is:
A) Zero C) 1
B) 90° D) –1

Q.28 If the body is rotating with uniform angular velocity, then its torque is:
A) Zero C) Maximum
B) Clockwise D) Remains the same

Q.29 Speed of light, radio waves and microwaves in vacuum is:
A) 3 x 105 ms-1 C) 3 x 106 ms-1
B) 3 x 103 ms-1 D) 3 x 108 ms-1

Q.30 A body is moving with an initial velocity of 2 kms-1. After a time of 50 secs its velocity becomes
1.5 kms-1. Its acceleration will be:
A) 30 ms-1 C) 20 ms-1
B) 40 ms-1 D) 10 ms-1

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Q.31 When a car moves with constant acceleration, the velocity-time graph is a:

A) C)

B) D)

Q.32 In elastic collision, when a massive body collides with light body at conditions m1 >> m2 and v2
= 0 ms-1, then the change in velocity will be written as:
A) v1’ ≈ − v1 ; v2’ ≈ v1 C) v1’ ≈ v1 ; v2’ ≈ 2v1
B) v1’ ≈ v1 ; v2’ ≈ 0 D) v1’ ≈ − v1 ; v2’ ≈ 0

A) 2.5 kWm-2 C) 1.4 kWm-2
B) 0.6 kWm-2 D) 2.0 kWm-2

Q.38 Linear velocity or tangential velocity of any particle moving in a circular path of radius 2 m with angular velocity 8 rads-1 will be:
A) 16 ms-1 C) 10 ms-1
B) 4 ms-1 D) 6 ms-1

Q.39 What is torque ‘τ’ in a circular motion?
A) τ = mr2π C) τ = mrα
B) τ = mr2α D) τ = mr2/α

Q.40 If the mass attached with a spring becomes four times, the time period of vibration becomes:
A) One fourth C) Half
B) 3/4 D) Double

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Q.41 A body of mass 6 g falls under action of gravity. At initial position ‘A’ its P.E. is 480 J and K.E. is 0 J. During its downward journey at point ‘B’ its energies will be (g = 10 ms-2):

A) P.E. = 300 J and K.E. = 180 J C) P.E. = 230 J and K.E. = 250 J
B) P.E. = 180 J and K.E. = 300 J D) P.E. = 250 J and K.E. = 230 J

Q.42 A tiny droplet of oil of density ‘ρ’ and radius ‘r’ falls through air under force of gravity. If viscosity of air is ‘η’, the terminal velocity acquired by the oil drop is given by:

A) fλ C) Both A and B
λ
B) T D) λT
Q.47 A particle carrying charge of 2e falls through a potential difference of 3.0 V. Calculate the energy required by it:
A) 9.6 x 10-19 J C) 1.6 x 10-19 J
B) 9.1 x 10-19 J D) 6.0 x 10-19 J

Q.48 The deviation of I-V graph from the straight line is due to:
A) Decrease in temperature and decrease in resistance
B) Increase in temperature and increase in resistance
C) Decrease in temperature and increase in resistance
D) Increase in temperature and decrease in resistance

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Q.49 The fractional change in resistance per Kelvin is known as:
A) Temperature coefficient of resistance C) Linear coefficient of expansion
B) Thermal coefficient D) Volumetric coefficient of expansion

Q.50 The energy supplied by the cell to the charge carriers is derived from the conversion of:
A) Heat energy into Electrical energy C) Solar energy into Electrical energy
B) Chemical energy into Electrical energy D) Mechanical energy into Electrical energy

Q.51 Force experienced by a moving change in a magnetic field is:
A) F = BA cosϴ C) F = q (v x B)
B) F = μo NI D) F = I (L x B)

Q.52 The value of permeability of free space μo is:
A) 4π x 10-7 WbA-1m-1 C) 4π x 10-7 WbA-2m-1
B) 4π x 102 WbA-2m-2 D) 4π x 102 WbA-1m-2

Q.53 What shunt resistance must be connected across a Galvanometer of 20 Ω resistance which gives full scale deflection with 2.0 A current, so as to convert it into an Ammeter of range 10 A?
A) 5 Ω C) 3 Ω
B) 2 Ω D) 4 Ω

Q.54 The current measuring part of the Avometer consists of number of low resistances connected:
A) At an angle of 180° with the galvanometer C) At an angle of 45° with the galvanometer
B) Parallel with the galvanometer D) Perpendicular to the galvanometer

Q.55 A charge of two micro coulombs (2 μC) moves with velocity of two meter per second (2 m/sec) in the direction of two Tesla magnetic field. The force that will act on it will be:
A) 2 N C) 8 N
B) Zero D) 4 N

Q.56 We have two coils placed close to each other. When we switch on the battery connected to primary coil while keeping the sliding contact of rheostat at fixed position, the reading of Galvanometer:
A) First increases and then becomes zero
B) First increases and then becomes constant at some value
C) Increases with the passage of time
D) Remains zero

Q.57 Power losses in a transformer can be minimized:
A) By increasing turn ratio
B) By decreasing turn ratio
C) By stopping the flow of Eddy currents
D) Using material of the core whose hysteresis area is large

Q.58 In R-L Series circuit, the phase difference between applied voltage and current is given by the angle ϴ which is:
LR ω
A) ϴ = tan-1 ω C) ϴ = tan-1 g
ωR
B) ϴ = tan-1 ωLR D) ϴ = tan-1 L

Q.59 Frequency of L-C circuit will resonate under the driving action of the antenna by angular value of:
A) Capacitance C) Inductance
B) Impedance D) Resistance

Q.60 To convert the Si crystal into p-type semi-conductor, which group element will be doped:
A) Trivalent Element C) Fourth Group Element
B) Second Group Element D) Pentavalent Element

CHEMISTRY

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Q.61 Which of the following is an exothermic reaction?
1
A) H+(aq) + OH−(aq) H2O(l) C) 2 H2(g) H(g) 1
B) Na(g) Na+(g) + 1e− D) 2 Cl2(g) Cl(g)
Q.62 The rate equation determined experimentally for this reaction:
(CH3)3―C―Br + H2O (CH3)3―C―OH + HBr Is, Rate = k[(CH3)3CBr]
Hence it is which of the follwing?
A) Fractional Order C) First Order
B) Pseudo First Order D) Second Order

Q.63 Equilibrium constant Kc for

Can be written as follows:
[H+]

H2O H+ + OH−
[OH-][H+]

A) Kc = [H2O][OH-] C) Kc =
[OH-]

[H2O]
[H2O]

B) Kc = [H+][OH-] D) Kc = [H+][OH-]

Q.67 During isotopic analysis, the pressure of the vapours of the ions maintained in the ionization chamber of mass spectrometer is:
A) Around 10-7 torr C) 1 torr
B) Around 10-3 torr D) 10-7 torr

Q.68 The acid which can be purified by the sublimation is:
A) Acetic Acid C) Oxalic Acid
B) Benzoic Acid D) Citric Acid

Q.69 Paper chromatography is used for:
A) Elemental Analysis C) Qualitative Analysis
B) Industrial Purification D) Structural Analysis

Q.70 In the process of respiration there is application of:
A) Dalton’s Law C) Boyle’s Law
C) Charles’s Law D) Graham’s Law

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Q.71 The formula of acrylonitrile is:
A) CH3=CH―CN C) CH3―CH2―CN
B) CH3―CH2―CH2―CN D) CH3―CN

Q.72 During nitration of benzene the active nitrating agent is:
A) NO − D) NO3
B) HNO2 D) NO +

Q.73 Which compound is the most reactive one?
A) Ethyne C) Benzene
B) Ethane D) Ethene

Q.74 Grignard reagents are prepared by the reaction of magnesium metal with alkyl halides in the presence of:
A) Dry Ether C) Alcohol
B) CS2 D) CCl4

Q.75 When n-butyl magnesium iodide is treated with water, the product is:
A) n-butane C) Propane
B) Iso-butane D) Alcohol

X

Q.76 CO + 2H2
X and Y are:

Y CH3OH

Q.82 Which of the following compounds will react with Tollen’s Reagent?

O

A) CH3 C OH
O
B) CH3 C CH2 CH3

O

C) CH3 C H O
D) CH3 C CH3

Q.83 In conjugated protein molecules, the protein is attached or conjugated to some non-protein group which are called:
A) Prosthetic Group C) Hydrogen Bonding
C) Aldehyde Group D) Peptide Linkage

Q.84 Micronutrients are required in quantity ranging from:
A) 6 – 200 g per acre C) 4 – 40 g per acre
B) 6 – 200 kg per acre D) 4 – 40 kg per acre

Q.85 Potassium fertilizers are especially useful for:
A) Mango C) Wheat
B) Tobacco D) Rice

Q.86 The yellowish colour of photochemical smog is due to the presence of:
A) Nitrogen dioxide C) Nitrous oxide
B) Dinitrogen trioxide D) Nitric oxide

Q.87 The incarnation process can reduce the volume of the water by:
A) One half C) One third
B) Not affected D) Two third

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Q.88 % of the known universe is in the plasma state.
A) 30 C) 50
B) 99 D) 80

Q.89 Absolute zero is unattainable. Current attempts have resulted in temperature as low as:
A) 10-4 K C) 10-1 K
B) 10-2 K D) 10-5 K

Q.90 Electron gas theory was proposed to explain the bonding in solids:
A) Molecular C) Covalent
B) Ionic D) Metallic

Q.91 In proteins, there are on the average amino acid units for each turn in helix:

A) Polar C) Non-polar
B) Partially Ionic D) Both B and C

Q.97 VSEPR theory helps in explaining:
A) Attraction between atoms C) Nature of bond
B) Size of molecule D) Shape of molecule

Q.98 Which of the following formation is an endothermic reaction?
A) C(g) + O2(g) CO2 C) 2H2O(l) 2H2(g) + O2(g)
B) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) D) None of the above

Q.99 Solubility of KClO3 can be decreased bin H2O by:
A) Removing K+ ions from the solution C) Adding KCl from outside
B) Removing ClO3-1 ions from the solution D) Adding NaNO3 from outside

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Q.100 36 g of HCl dissolves in 100 g of solution. The density of HCl is 1.19 gcm-3. The molar mass of the HCl solution will be:
A) 36.5 g/mol C) 38.0 g/mol
B) 100 g/mol D) 11.73 g/mol

Q.101 The heat of hydration decreases with the increase in:
A) Number of neutrons C) Size of atomic radii
B) Size of cations D) Number of electrons

Q.102 Stronger the oxidizing agent, greater is the:
A) Redox Potential C) Oxidation Potential
B) emf of the cell D) Reduction Potential

Q.103 The emf produced by Galvanic Cell is known as:
A) Redox Potential C) Cell Potential
B) Oxidation Potential D) None of the above

Q.104 In nickel-cadmium battery, the cathode is composed of:
A) Cd C) Ni
B) Ni(OH)2 D) NiO2

Q.105 Concentrated sugar solution undergoes hydrolysis into glucose and fructose by enzyme called:
A) Zymase C) Cellulose
B) Invertase D) Urease

A) Calcium C) Barium
B) Aluminium D) Carbon

Q.112 Formula of lead suboxide is:
A) Pb2O3 C) PbO
B) Pb2O D) Pb3O4

Q.113 Phosphine can be produced by of phosphorous acid.
A) Hydration C) Oxidation
B) Hydrolysis D) Reduction

Q.114 Which Noble Gas is used in bacterial lamps?
A) Xenon C) Argon

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Q.115 The most durable metal plating on iron to protect against corrosion is:
A) Tin plating C) Nickel plating
D) Zinc plating D) Copper plating

Q.116 Colour of the transition metal ions/ compounds is due to the electrons present in:
A) d-orbital C) p-orbital
B) s-orbital D) None of the above

Q.117 Chromyl Chloride Test is performed to confirm:
A) Cl− ions C) PO −3 ions
B) SO −2 ions D) Cr+3 ions

Q.118 Linear shape is associated with set of hybrid orbitals?
A) sp2 C) sp3
B) dsp2 D) sp

Q.119 Which one of the following compounds show cis-trans isomerism?
A) 1-butene C) 1-bromo-2-chloropropane
B) 1-hexene D) Propene

Q.120 CH3―CH2―MgBr + H2O Where ‘X’ is:

Br
Mg + X

OH

SPOT THE ERROR: In the following sentences, some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected. Fill the Circle corresponding to that letter under the segment in the MCQ Response From.

Q.125 He is better than all the boys in the class, in studies as well as in sports, and bags big prizes in various field.
A) B) C) D)

Q.126 One must not depend too much upon one’s hard work, as provident also plays its part.
A) B) C) D)

Q.127 His first adventure was to go round through the world at minimum cost.
A) B) C) D)

Q.128 He has been working in this department since the last five years without any break.
A) B) C) D)

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Q.129 He reached at Lahore only a few days ago, on last Friday, to be exact, and is going to stay here for some time.
A) B) C) D)

Q.130 There was a big rally on the Mall, but as the crowd disintegrated, chaos and confusion ruled everywhere.
A) B) C) D)

In each of the following question, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the CORRECT one and fill the Circle corresponding to that letter in the MCQ Response Form.

Q.131
A) E-mail is a relatively new mean of communication. C) E-mail is a relatively new means of communication.
B) E-mail is a relatively new mean to communication. D) E-mail is a relatively new means to communication.

Q.132
A) As she said the computer was programmed by Mona.
B) Just like she said the computer was programmed by Mona.
C) As like she said the computer was programmed by Mona.
D) Just like she had she said the computer was programmed by Mona.

Q.133

Q.137
A) Masood told me that he would hire more salesman if he is in my position.
B) Masood told me that he would hire more salesman if he has been in my position.
C) Masood told me that he would hire more salesman if he has my position.
D) Masood told me that he would hire more salesman if he had been in my position.

Q.138
A) He consumed his heart on this and washed away before the very eyes of the people.
B) He consumed his heart at this and washed away before the very eyes of the people
C) He consumed his heart for this and washed away before the very eyes of the people.
D) He consumed his heart over this and washed away before the very eyes of the people.

Q.139
A) They felt bad while leaving their friends. C) They felt very badly about leaving their friends.

Q.140

A) He then struck the man himself a similar bow, which felled him on the earth like a log.

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B) He then struck the man himself a similar bow, which felled him over the earth like a log.
C) He then struck the man himself a similar bow, which felled him to the earth like a log.
D) He then struck the man himself a similar bow, which felled him in the earth like a log.

In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word and fill the appropriate Circle on the MCQ Response Form.

Q.141 AGHAST
A) Critical C) Happy
B) Reluctant D) Horrified

Q.142 INVIDIOUS
A) Unbreakable C) Unpleasant
B) Interesting D) Fair

Q.143 IMPROMPTU
A) Arriving at the right time C) Done without preparation
B) Showing signs of being good D) Wretched

Q.144 DISCERNMENT

Q.150 PARABLE
A) Impossible C) Allegory
B) Sociable D) Suitable

BIOLOGY

Q.151 If DNA strand is
GCTATGG
mRNA strand synthesized from it would be:
A) CGAUACC C) CGATACC
B) CGTATGC D) CGUTCC

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Q.152 Which one of the following conditions best describes active membrane potential:
A) C)

B) D)
Q.153 Tissue rejection is executed by:
A) Both B and T lymphocytes C) B-lymphocytes
B) Monocytes D) T-lymphocytes

Q.154 Which of the following statement best describes the function of sinoatrial node?
A) It sends out electrical impulses to ventricles to contract.
B) It is present at upper end of the left atrium
C) It consists of small number of diffusely oriented cardiac fibers.
D) It sends out electrical impulses to atrial muscles causing both atria to contract.

Q.155 A central cavity of the kidney where urine is collected after filtration is known as:

Q.161 Which of the following neurotransmitters lies outside the central nervous system?
A) Serotonin C) Acetylcholine

Q.162 Which hormonal pair shares a common hypothalamic releasing factor?
A) STH and LH C) FSH and STH
B) ACTH and LH D) FSH and LH

Q.163 Which of the following will happen if fertilization does not occur?
A) Menopause starts C) FSH secretion is increased
B) Corpus luteum degenerates D) Progesterone secretion is increased

Q.164 Newborn infant may acquire serious eye infections, if his/her mother has:
A) Genital herpes C) Gonorrhea
B) AIDS D) Syphilis

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Q.165 At the cephalic end of primitive streak, closely packed cells form a local thickening known as:
A) Henson’s Node C) Primitive Ridge
B) Gastrocoele D) Primitive Gut

Q.166 In plants, the red light favours:
A) Enhancement of cell differentiation C) Maturation of the cells
B) Elongation of cells D) Enhancement of cell division

Q.167 The reaction between the phosphate group of one nucleotide and hydroxyl group of another is a synthesis in DNA molecule.
A) Dehydration C) Oxidation
B) Rehydration D) Reduction

Q.168 Enzyme which attaches the Okazaki fragments in lagging strand is called:
A) Restriction endonuclease C) DNA helicase
B) Primase D) DNA ligase

Q.169 In phenylketonuria, phenylalanine is not degraded because of defective enzyme:
A) Phenylalanine hydrogenase B) Phenylalanine oxidase
B) Phenylalanine phosphate D) None of these

Q.170 Males with XXY chromosomes suffer from:
A) Klinefelter’s Syndrome C) Down’s Syndrome
B) Jacob’s Syndrome D) Edward’s Syndrome

Q.176 Cloning is a form of:
A) Parthenogenesis C) Sexual Reproduction
B) Apomixis D) Asexual Reproduction

Q.177 Antigens to treat Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma are produced by:
A) Wheat Plant C) Tobacco Plant
B) Rice Plant D) Corn Plant

Q.178 The survival of an organism during the struggle for existence is not random, but depends on:
A) Its genetic constitution C) Its ability to over-produce
B) Its ability to acquire characters D) Its ability to over-eat

Q.179 Evolutionary relationships amongst species are reflected in their:
A) DNA and proteins C) DNA and gene
B) RNAs and proteins D) DNA and RNAs

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Q.180 If all the members of a population are homozygous for the same allele, that allele is said to be:
A) Random in population’s pool C) Random in a species
B) Fixed in population’s pool D) Fixed in the gene pool

Q.181 Diseases in living organisms which are caused by parasites are called:
A) Disinfestations C) Infections
B) Antisepsis D) Infestations

Q.182 The nutrient cycles are also called:
A) Biogeochemical cycles C) Bio element cycles
B) Biochemical cycles D) Geochemical cycles

Q.183 The productivity of aquatic ecosystem is determined by:
A) Water C) Light
B) Light and nutrients D) Nutrients

Q.184 What is the drawback of nuclear energy?
A) It causes radiation pollution C) It is very expensive
B) It is not long lasting D) It pollutes the air

Q.185 Arteriosclerosis is:
A) A metabolic disorder C) An infectious disorder
B) A degenerative Disorder D) A nutritional deficiency disorder

A) Ribosome C) Nucleosome
B) Lysosome D) Polysome

Q.192 Detoxification of harmful drugs within the cell is done by:
A) Nucleolus C) Ribosomes
B) Smooth Surface Endoplasmic Reticulum D) Food Vacuoles

Q.193 Tay-Sach’s disease is due to the presence of an enzyme that is inverted in the catabolism of:
A) Proteins C) Ascorbic Acid
B) Carbohydrates D) Lipids

Q.194 What is true about pattern baldness?
A) It is autosomal recessive disease in males C) It is X-linked disease
B) It is autosomal dominant disease in males D) It is Y-linked disease

Q.195 Symptoms of Herpes Simplex is:

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A) Abdominal Pain C) Vesicular lesions in the epithelial layer
B) Fever D) Failure of immune system

Q.196 The major cell infected by the HIV is:
A) Leucocyte C) Helper T-lymphocyte
B) Monocyte D) B-lymphocyte

Q.197 are used as important vectors in genetic engineering.
A) Ribosomes C) Nucleoids
B) Plasmids D) Mesosomes

Q.198 Which of the following is aerobic bacterium?
A) Spirochete C) E. coli
B) Cyanobacteria D) Pseudosomanas

Q.199 The giant amoebas inhabit mud at the bottom of fresh water ponds and obtain energy from:
A) Microscopic bacteria C) Anaerobic bacteria
B) Aerobic bacteria D) Methanogenic bacteria

Q.200 A large group of parasitic protozoa, some of which causes various diseases such as malaria to humans, are:
A) Aschelminthes C) Annelida
B) Platyhelminthes D) Arthropods

Q.201 Penicillin is obtained from:
A) Penicillium notatum C) Aspergillus fumigatus
B) Aspergillus flavus D) Penicillium chrysogenum

Q.202 Which of the following components is less resistant to decay?
A) Lignin C) Chitin
B) Starch D) Cellulose

Q.203 are bioindicators of air pollution.
A) Cyanobacteria C) Mycorrhiza
B) Fungi D) Lichens

Q.204 The gymnosperms are called ‘Naked Seeded’ plants because they bear naked:
A) Antheridia C) Fruits
B) Ovules D) Archegonia

Q.205 The integumented indehiscent mega sporangium is called:
A) Seed C) Archegonium
B) Megagametophyte D) Ovule

Q.206 Pulses are present in the family:
A) Caesalpinlaceae C) Gramineae
B) Fabaceae D) Mimosaceae

Q.207 It is an endoparasite of humans, cattle and pig that completes its life cycle in two hosts:
A) Tapeworm C) Liver fluke
B) Aurelia D) Planaria

Q.208 Tse-tse fly causes the sleeping sickness and skin diseases by transmitting:
A) Plasmodium C) Anopheles
B) Trypanosoma D) Insects

Q.209 Coelem is a cavity lined by:
A) Mesoderm C) Epiderm
B) Endoderm D) Ectoderm

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Q.210 Which of the following molecules is reduced by accepting hydrogen in Calvin Cycle?
A) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate C) 3-Phosphoglycerate
B) Ribulose bisphosphate D) 1,3-Bisphosphoglycerate

Q.211 The molecule formed after first phosphorylation during glycolysis is:
A) Fructose-6-phosphate C) Glucose-1-phosphate
B) Fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate D) Glucose-6-phosphate

Q.212 Krebs Cycle in mitochondria takes place in:
A) Cytosol C) Outer Membrane
B) Matrix D) Inner Membrane

Q.213 At the junction between esophagus and the stomach there is a special ring of muscles called:
A) Cardiac Sphincter C) Esophageal Sphincter
B) Ileocolic Sphincter D) Pyloric Sphincter

Q.214 Hepatic and pancreatic secretions are also stimulated by a hormone called:
A) Gastrin C) Insulin
B) Secretin D) Glucagon

Q.215 Like pepsin, trypsin is also secreted as inactive trypsinogen, which is activated by:
A) Enterokinase C) Chyme
B) Lipase D) Erypsin

Q.216 During photorespiration, the glycolate is converted into glycine in a structure of cell called:

The respiratory pigment, which has much higher affinity to combine with oxygen, is:
A) Myoglobin C) Haemoglobin
B) Globin D) Hemocyanin

Q.218 Most of the carbon dioxide is carried in the blood in the form of:
A) Bicarbonate C) CO2
B) Carboxyhemoglobin D) Blood plasma protein

Heparin prevents blood clots and is released by:
A) Eosinophils C) Neutrophils
B) Monocytes D) Basophils